---
title: "Negative effective mass at top of valence band"
subject: "Electrical Engineering Material"
chapter: 1
key: "semester_3/electrical_engineering_material:negative-mass-valence-band-top"
source: https://www.bctengineer.com/q/semester_3/electrical_engineering_material/negative-mass-valence-band-top
site: BCT Engineering
---

# Negative effective mass at top of valence band

Electrical Engineering Material · Chapter 1: Theory of Metals

- Asked in: 2072 Chaitra, 2+4 marks
- Video: [Effective mass of Electron (Solid state Physics) PHYSICS (in हिन्दी)](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=__nOVPc7FIU) — Gautam Varde
- Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort) on 2026-10-14
- Page: https://www.bctengineer.com/q/semester_3/electrical_engineering_material/negative-mass-valence-band-top
- Whole chapter: https://www.bctengineer.com/md/semester_3/electrical_engineering_material/chapter-1

## Question

What is effective mass? The electron at the top of valence band is said to have negative effective mass. Explain with the help of E-k diagram.

## Short answer

Effective mass m* = ħ²/(d²E/dk²) accounts for lattice forces. At the top of the valence band the E–k curvature is negative, so m* is negative; the electron accelerates opposite to the applied field. This behavior is treated as a hole with positive charge and positive mass.

## Answer

**Effective mass** $m^*$ is the apparent mass of an electron in a crystal when it is acted on by an external force, including the effect of the lattice:

$$
m^* = \frac{\hbar^2}{d^2E/dk^2}
$$

It depends on the curvature of the E–k curve.

#### Negative effective mass at the top of the valence band

```text
  E
  ^            Conduction band
  |   \                          /
  |    \          m* > 0        /
  |     `-.__              __.-'
  |           ''--....--''        bottom of CB
  |                               (concave up)
  |  - - - - - - Eg  - - - - - - - - -
  |           .--~~~~--.         top of VB
  |       _.-'  m* < 0  '-._     (concave down)
  |     /                    \
  |    /   Valence band       \
  +---------------|------------------> k
                  0
```

- At the **top of the valence band** the E–k curve is an inverted parabola: $E \approx E_v - \dfrac{\hbar^2k^2}{2|m^*|}$.
- So $\dfrac{d^2E}{dk^2} = -\dfrac{\hbar^2}{|m^*|} < 0$, and therefore $m^* = \dfrac{\hbar^2}{d^2E/dk^2}$ is **negative**.

#### Physical meaning
An electron near the top of the band has a wave vector close to the Bragg reflection condition. When an electric field pushes it, the lattice reflects it so strongly that the electron accelerates **opposite** to the direction expected for a normal negative particle.

An electron with negative charge ($-e$) and negative mass ($-|m^*|$) accelerates in the same direction as a particle with **positive charge and positive mass**:

$$
a = \frac{(-e)E}{-|m^*|} = \frac{(+e)E}{+|m^*|}
$$

So instead of tracking the many electrons with negative mass at the top of the valence band, we track the few **empty states** there and treat each one as a **hole** with charge $+e$ and positive effective mass $m_h^*$. This is why holes in p-type semiconductors move in the direction of the field and carry current like positive particles.

## Check yourself

The answer's key points as multiple-choice questions, with the correct option and why.

1. Near the top of the valence band, d^2E/dk^2 is:
   A. Positive
   B. Zero
   C. Infinite
   D. Negative
   Answer: D. The E-k curve is an inverted parabola, so m* is negative. (Key point: Curvature)

2. The electron near the band top accelerates opposite to the force because:
   A. It is repelled by the field
   B. The lattice reflects it (Bragg condition) more strongly than the applied force
   C. Its charge is positive
   D. It has zero velocity
   Answer: B. Strong lattice reflection gives an effective negative mass. (Key point: Why opposite)

3. Treating the empty state as a hole gives it:
   A. Negative charge and negative mass
   B. Positive charge and negative mass
   C. Positive charge and positive effective mass
   D. No charge
   Answer: C. (-e)/(-|m*|) = (+e)/(+|m*|). (Key point: Hole)

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