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CompTIA Network+ · Domain 3 · 19% of the examNetwork Operations

12 practice questions. Tap an option to check it, or open “Show answer” for the explanation.

1. An engineer has tested a routing fix in the lab and wants to apply it to the production core router. Under the organization's change management process, what should happen first?

Objective 3.1

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Answer: C. Submit a change request that describes the change, its impact, the rollback plan and the proposed window, and get it approved

Change management requires a tracked request that is reviewed and approved before production is touched, including the risk, schedule and rollback plan. Backing up the configuration is good practice, but it doesn't replace getting approval.

Checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort) · Oct 14, 2026

2. A network team keeps an approved, known-good configuration for each switch model and compares every switch's running configuration against it each night to catch unauthorized changes. What is this approved configuration called?

Objective 3.1

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Answer: B. Baseline (golden) configuration

A baseline or golden configuration is the approved standard that devices are measured against to detect configuration drift. The production configuration is whatever is actually running right now, which is what gets compared to the baseline.

Checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort) · Oct 14, 2026

3. A vendor announces that after next June it will no longer release security patches or firmware updates for a firewall model the company still runs. Which life-cycle milestone does this describe?

Objective 3.1

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Answer: A. End-of-support (EOS)

End-of-support is the date after which the vendor stops providing patches, updates and technical support. End-of-life usually marks when a product stops being sold or manufactured, which can come well before support ends.

Checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort) · Oct 14, 2026

4. An audit finds that the company's switches are monitored with SNMP community strings sent in clear text. The team needs SNMP that authenticates the management station and encrypts the data. What should it do?

Objective 3.2

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Answer: D. Migrate to SNMPv3 with authentication and privacy (encryption) enabled

SNMPv3 adds user-based authentication and encryption (the authPriv security level). SNMPv2c still sends community strings in clear text however long they are, so a longer string doesn't protect it from capture.

Checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort) · Oct 14, 2026

5. A manager wants to know which hosts and applications used the most WAN bandwidth over the past month. Storing the full contents of every packet isn't practical. Which monitoring method best fits?

Objective 3.2

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Answer: C. Flow data (such as NetFlow or IPFIX) exported to a collector

Flow data records who talked to whom, on which ports, and how many bytes, without payloads, which makes top-talker reporting over long periods practical. A full packet capture holds the same information but takes up far more storage, which rules it out here.

Checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort) · Oct 14, 2026

6. After a business impact review, leadership decides the company can lose no more than 15 minutes of transaction data in a disaster, and systems must be back online within 4 hours. Which metric does the 15-minute figure define?

Objective 3.3

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Answer: A. Recovery point objective (RPO)

RPO is the maximum acceptable data loss measured in time, which drives how often backups or replication must happen. The 4-hour figure is the RTO, the maximum time allowed to restore service.

Checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort) · Oct 14, 2026

7. An organization wants a recovery site that already has power, network connectivity and hardware installed. To save money it accepts that staff will need to restore the latest data and bring services up over several hours to a day or so. Which type of site is this?

Objective 3.3

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Answer: D. Warm site

A warm site has the infrastructure and equipment in place but not current data or live systems, so recovery takes hours to days. A hot site keeps systems and data continuously ready and can take over almost immediately, at a much higher cost.

Checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort) · Oct 14, 2026

8. Clients in VLAN 30 (10.30.0.0/24) aren't getting IP addresses. The DHCP server at 10.99.0.10 has a correctly configured scope for 10.30.0.0/24, and clients on the server's own subnet get addresses normally. What is the most likely fix?

Objective 3.4

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Answer: A. Configure a DHCP relay (IP helper) on the VLAN 30 router interface pointing to 10.99.0.10

DHCP Discover messages are broadcasts that routers don't forward, so a relay agent on the client's gateway must forward them to the server as unicast. Changing the lease time doesn't help when the requests never reach the server in the first place.

Checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort) · Oct 14, 2026

9. A network printer must always get 192.168.1.50 from DHCP so users' print queues keep working, but the administrator still wants to manage its settings centrally through DHCP. What should be configured?

Objective 3.4

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Answer: B. A reservation that maps the printer's MAC address to 192.168.1.50

A reservation ties a specific MAC address to a specific IP, so the printer always gets 192.168.1.50 along with the rest of its DHCP options. An exclusion only stops the server from handing out that address, so the printer would still need a static IP configured by hand.

Checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort) · Oct 14, 2026

10. A security analyst's log tool shows only IP addresses. The analyst wants reverse DNS lookups to return each server's hostname. Which record type must exist in the reverse lookup zone?

Objective 3.4

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Answer: C. PTR

PTR records in a reverse zone (in-addr.arpa for IPv4) map an IP address back to a hostname. A records do the opposite, mapping a name to an IPv4 address in a forward zone.

Checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort) · Oct 14, 2026

11. A bad configuration change takes down a branch router's WAN link, so administrators at headquarters can no longer reach it over SSH. Which approach would have kept CLI access to the router available?

Objective 3.5

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Answer: D. Out-of-band management through a console server reachable over a separate cellular connection

Out-of-band management uses a path that doesn't depend on the production network, such as a console server with its own cellular or dial-up link. A jump box or a management VLAN is still in-band and travels over the same failed WAN link.

Checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort) · Oct 14, 2026

12. Remote employees connect through a client-to-site VPN. To reduce load on headquarters' internet link, only traffic to corporate subnets should go through the tunnel, while other internet traffic goes straight out the user's home connection. Which configuration achieves this?

Objective 3.5

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Answer: B. Split tunnel

A split tunnel sends only corporate-bound traffic through the VPN and lets everything else use the local internet connection. A full tunnel forces all traffic, including general web browsing, through headquarters, which is exactly the load the company wants to avoid.

Checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort) · Oct 14, 2026

Original practice questions written from CompTIA’s published exam objectives, not real exam questions. CompTIA is a trademark of CompTIA, Inc.; this site isn’t affiliated with CompTIA.