- Asked 6/16
- 2073 Shrawan
- 2070 Chaitra
Solve (1+y²)+(x−e^(tan⁻¹y))dy/dx=0
Short answer
Rearrange to dx/dy + x/(1+y²) = e^(tan⁻¹y)/(1+y²), linear in x with IF e^(tan⁻¹y). Solving yields x e^(tan⁻¹y) = (1/2)e^(2 tan⁻¹y) + C. Thus x = ½ e^(tan⁻¹y) + C e^(−tan⁻¹y).
Solve the differential equation (1+y²) + (x − e^(tan⁻¹y)) dy/dx = 0.
The equation is not linear in y, but it is linear in x taken as the dependent variable.
Rewrite as a linear equation in x
Multiply the equation by dx/dy (using (dy/dx)(dx/dy) = 1):
(1 + y²) dx/dy + x − e^(tan⁻¹y) = 0, so
dx/dy + x/(1 + y²) = e^(tan⁻¹y)/(1 + y²)
This is linear in x with P = 1/(1 + y²) and Q = e^(tan⁻¹y)/(1 + y²).
Integrating factor
IF = e^(∫dy/(1+y²)) = e^(tan⁻¹y)
Solution
x e^(tan⁻¹y) = ∫ [e^(tan⁻¹y)/(1 + y²)] e^(tan⁻¹y) dy
Put t = tan⁻¹y: ∫ e^(2t) dt = e^(2t)/2 + C.
x e^(tan⁻¹y) = e^(2 tan⁻¹y)/2 + C
x = ½ e^(tan⁻¹y) + C e^(−tan⁻¹y)
Check: put x = ½e^t + Ce^(−t), t = tan⁻¹y: dx/dy = (½e^t − Ce^(−t))/(1+y²) and dx/dy + x/(1+y²) = e^t/(1+y²) ✓.
✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)
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