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Two-mass system X2/F by free body diagram, F-V analogy

Short answer

Eliminate junction x3 using series impedance K1B1s/(K1+B1s) in parallel with K2 to get coupling Zc. Then X2(s)/F(s) = Zc/[ab+Zc(a+b)] where a = M1s^2+fc1s, b=M2s^2+(fc2+B2)s; denominator has a pole at s=0. F-V analogy: F→e, M→L, friction→R, spring→1/C; the K1-B1 series branch becomes parallel C(1/K1)||R(B1) in the shared mesh.

Find the transfer function X2(s)/F(s) of the mechanical system shown below by constructing the free body diagram and writing necessary mathematical equations. Also draw F-V analogy circuit. [Figure: force F applied to mass M1 (displacement x1, friction fc1 with ground); M1 connected to mass M2 (displacement x2, friction fc2 with ground) by two parallel paths: spring K1 in series with damper B1 (junction displacement x3), and spring K2 directly; M2 connected to the wall through damper B2]

Displacements: x1x_1 (M1M_1), x2x_2 (M2M_2), and x3x_3 = junction of K1K_1 (on the M1M_1 side) and B1B_1 (on the M2M_2 side). K2K_2 connects the masses directly.

Free body equations

  • M1M_1: FF applied; opposed by M1x¨1M_1\ddot x_1, fc1x˙1f_{c1}\dot x_1, K1(x1−x3)K_1(x_1 - x_3), K2(x1−x2)K_2(x_1 - x_2).
  • Junction (massless): K1(x3−x1)+B1(x˙3−x˙2)=0K_1(x_3 - x_1) + B_1(\dot x_3 - \dot x_2) = 0.
  • M2M_2: opposed by M2x¨2M_2\ddot x_2, (fc2+B2)x˙2(f_{c2} + B_2)\dot x_2, B1(x˙2−x˙3)B_1(\dot x_2 - \dot x_3), K2(x2−x1)K_2(x_2 - x_1).
M1x¨1+fc1x˙1+K1(x1−x3)+K2(x1−x2)=FK1(x3−x1)+B1(x˙3−x˙2)=0M2x¨2+(fc2+B2)x˙2+B1(x˙2−x˙3)+K2(x2−x1)=0\begin{aligned} M_1\ddot x_1 + f_{c1}\dot x_1 + K_1(x_1 - x_3) + K_2(x_1 - x_2) &= F \\ K_1(x_3 - x_1) + B_1(\dot x_3 - \dot x_2) &= 0 \\ M_2\ddot x_2 + (f_{c2} + B_2)\dot x_2 + B_1(\dot x_2 - \dot x_3) + K_2(x_2 - x_1) &= 0 \end{aligned}

Eliminating x3x_3

The series K1K_1–B1B_1 branch acts as Keq=K1B1sK1+B1sK_{eq} = \dfrac{K_1B_1s}{K_1 + B_1s}, in parallel with K2K_2. Total coupling:

Zc=K2+K1B1sK1+B1s=K1K2+B1(K1+K2)sK1+B1sZ_c = K_2 + \frac{K_1B_1s}{K_1 + B_1s} = \frac{K_1K_2 + B_1(K_1 + K_2)s}{K_1 + B_1s}

With a=M1s2+fc1sa = M_1s^2 + f_{c1}s and b=M2s2+(fc2+B2)sb = M_2s^2 + (f_{c2} + B_2)s:

(a+Zc)X1−ZcX2=F−ZcX1+(b+Zc)X2=0\begin{aligned} (a + Z_c)X_1 - Z_cX_2 &= F \\ -Z_cX_1 + (b + Z_c)X_2 &= 0 \end{aligned} X2F=Zcab+Zc(a+b)\frac{X_2}{F} = \frac{Z_c}{ab + Z_c(a + b)}

Transfer function

Multiplying by (K1+B1s)(K_1 + B_1s) and writing P=K1K2+B1(K1+K2)sP = K_1K_2 + B_1(K_1 + K_2)s:

X2(s)F(s)=K1K2+B1(K1+K2)ss{(K1+B1s) s (M1s+fc1)(M2s+fc2+B2)+P[(M1+M2)s+fc1+fc2+B2]}\frac{X_2(s)}{F(s)} = \frac{K_1K_2 + B_1(K_1 + K_2)s}{s\left\{(K_1 + B_1s)\,s\,(M_1s + f_{c1})(M_2s + f_{c2} + B_2) + P\left[(M_1 + M_2)s + f_{c1} + f_{c2} + B_2\right]\right\}}

The pole at s=0s = 0 appears because neither mass is tied to the wall by a spring.

F-V analogy

F→eF\to e, M→LM\to L, B,fc→RB, f_c\to R, K→1/CK\to 1/C. Mechanical elements in parallel (same velocity difference) become series elements, and elements in series (same force) become parallel. So the shared branch between mesh 1 (M1M_1) and mesh 2 (M2M_2) is C=1/K2C = 1/K_2 in series with the parallel pair 1/K1∥B11/K_1 \parallel B_1; the small loop inside that pair is mesh 3 (junction x3x_3).

   L1=M1  R=fc1           L2=M2  R=fc2+B2
 +-LLLL---/\/\--+--------LLLL---/\/\--+
 |              |                     |
(~) e        C=1/K2                   |
 |    i1        |           i2        |
 |          +---+---+                 |
 |        C=1/K1  R=B1                |
 |          | i3    |                 |
 |          +---+---+                 |
 |              |                     |
 +--------------+---------------------+

Mesh equations (Rc1=fc1R_{c1} = f_{c1}, Rc2=fc2R_{c2} = f_{c2}, RB1=B1R_{B1} = B_1, RB2=B2R_{B2} = B_2, C1=1/K1C_1 = 1/K_1, C2=1/K2C_2 = 1/K_2):

L1di1dt+Rc1i1+1C2∫(i1−i2) dt+1C1∫(i1−i3) dt=e1C1∫(i3−i1) dt+RB1(i3−i2)=0L2di2dt+(Rc2+RB2)i2+1C2∫(i2−i1) dt+RB1(i2−i3)=0\begin{aligned} L_1\frac{di_1}{dt} + R_{c1}i_1 + \frac{1}{C_2}\int(i_1 - i_2)\,dt + \frac{1}{C_1}\int(i_1 - i_3)\,dt &= e \\ \frac{1}{C_1}\int(i_3 - i_1)\,dt + R_{B1}(i_3 - i_2) &= 0 \\ L_2\frac{di_2}{dt} + (R_{c2} + R_{B2})i_2 + \frac{1}{C_2}\int(i_2 - i_1)\,dt + R_{B1}(i_2 - i_3) &= 0 \end{aligned}

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

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