- 2081 Bhadra · 6+2 marks
Two-mass system X2/F by free body diagram, F-V analogy
Short answer
Eliminate junction x3 using series impedance K1B1s/(K1+B1s) in parallel with K2 to get coupling Zc. Then X2(s)/F(s) = Zc/[ab+Zc(a+b)] where a = M1s^2+fc1s, b=M2s^2+(fc2+B2)s; denominator has a pole at s=0. F-V analogy: F→e, M→L, friction→R, spring→1/C; the K1-B1 series branch becomes parallel C(1/K1)||R(B1) in the shared mesh.
Find the transfer function X2(s)/F(s) of the mechanical system shown below by constructing the free body diagram and writing necessary mathematical equations. Also draw F-V analogy circuit. [Figure: force F applied to mass M1 (displacement x1, friction fc1 with ground); M1 connected to mass M2 (displacement x2, friction fc2 with ground) by two parallel paths: spring K1 in series with damper B1 (junction displacement x3), and spring K2 directly; M2 connected to the wall through damper B2]
Displacements: (), (), and = junction of (on the side) and (on the side). connects the masses directly.
Free body equations
- : applied; opposed by , , , .
- Junction (massless): .
- : opposed by , , , .
Eliminating
The series – branch acts as , in parallel with . Total coupling:
With and :
Transfer function
Multiplying by and writing :
The pole at appears because neither mass is tied to the wall by a spring.
F-V analogy
, , , . Mechanical elements in parallel (same velocity difference) become series elements, and elements in series (same force) become parallel. So the shared branch between mesh 1 () and mesh 2 () is in series with the parallel pair ; the small loop inside that pair is mesh 3 (junction ).
L1=M1 R=fc1 L2=M2 R=fc2+B2
+-LLLL---/\/\--+--------LLLL---/\/\--+
| | |
(~) e C=1/K2 |
| i1 | i2 |
| +---+---+ |
| C=1/K1 R=B1 |
| | i3 | |
| +---+---+ |
| | |
+--------------+---------------------+
Mesh equations (, , , , , ):
✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)
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