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DC motor θm/Va via block diagram

Short answer

Armature-controlled DC motor: from KVL and dynamics, block diagram has forward path Km/[(ra+sLa)(Js+f)] and 1/s, with feedback Kb. θm(s)/Va(s) = Km / {s[(ra+sLa)(Js+f) + KmKb]}. Expanded: Km / [s(LaJ s^2 + (raJ+La f)s + ra f + KmKb)]. Neglecting La gives K/(s(τm s+1)).

Find the transfer function θm(s)/Va(s) of the system below by constructing the block diagram. [Figure: armature-controlled DC motor; armature voltage Va drives armature current Ia through resistance ra and inductance La; field current If = constant; back emf Eb; motor torque constant Km; motor shaft (angle θm, torque τ) drives a load of inertia J with viscous friction f to the fixed frame]

With IfI_f constant the motor is armature controlled; flux is constant, so torque ∝Ia\propto I_a and back emf ∝\propto speed.

Equations

Va(s)=(ra+sLa)Ia(s)+Eb(s)(armature KVL)τ(s)=KmIa(s)(torque)τ(s)=(Js2+fs) θm(s)(load)Eb(s)=Kb s θm(s)(back emf)\begin{aligned} V_a(s) &= (r_a + sL_a)I_a(s) + E_b(s) && \text{(armature KVL)} \\ \tau(s) &= K_m I_a(s) && \text{(torque)} \\ \tau(s) &= (Js^2 + fs)\,\theta_m(s) && \text{(load)} \\ E_b(s) &= K_b\,s\,\theta_m(s) && \text{(back emf)} \end{aligned}

(KbK_b = back-emf constant; in SI units Kb=KmK_b = K_m.)

Constructing the block diagram

Each equation is written as output = block × input:

  • Ia=1ra+sLa(Va−Eb)I_a = \dfrac{1}{r_a + sL_a}(V_a - E_b)
  • τ=KmIa\tau = K_m I_a
  • ωm=1Js+fτ\omega_m = \dfrac{1}{Js + f}\tau, and θm=1sωm\theta_m = \dfrac{1}{s}\omega_m
  • Eb=Kb ωmE_b = K_b\,\omega_m (feedback)
 Va  +     ┌────────┐ Ia ┌────┐ τ ┌────────┐ ωm  ┌───┐ θm
 ───►(Σ)──►│   1    ├───►│ Km ├──►│   1    ├──┬─►│1/s├──►
      ▲ -  │ ra+sLa │    └────┘   │ Js + f │  │  └───┘
      │    └────────┘             └────────┘  │
      │ Eb           ┌────┐                   │
      └──────────────┤ Kb │◄──────────────────┘
                     └────┘

Reduction

  1. Combine the three forward blocks in cascade:
G(s)=Km(ra+sLa)(Js+f)G(s) = \frac{K_m}{(r_a + sL_a)(Js + f)}
  1. Eliminate the back-emf feedback loop (H=KbH = K_b):
ωm(s)Va(s)=G1+GKb=Km(ra+sLa)(Js+f)+KmKb\frac{\omega_m(s)}{V_a(s)} = \frac{G}{1 + GK_b} = \frac{K_m}{(r_a + sL_a)(Js + f) + K_mK_b}
  1. Multiply by the integrator 1/s1/s:
θm(s)Va(s)=Kms[(ra+sLa)(Js+f)+KmKb]\frac{\theta_m(s)}{V_a(s)} = \frac{K_m}{s\left[(r_a + sL_a)(Js + f) + K_mK_b\right]}

Expanded:

θm(s)Va(s)=Kms[LaJs2+(raJ+Laf)s+raf+KmKb]\frac{\theta_m(s)}{V_a(s)} = \frac{K_m}{s\left[L_aJs^2 + (r_aJ + L_af)s + r_af + K_mK_b\right]}

Simplified form

Neglecting LaL_a (electrical time constant much smaller than mechanical):

θm(s)Va(s)=Ks(τms+1),K=Kmraf+KmKb,τm=raJraf+KmKb\frac{\theta_m(s)}{V_a(s)} = \frac{K}{s(\tau_m s + 1)}, \quad K = \frac{K_m}{r_af + K_mK_b}, \quad \tau_m = \frac{r_aJ}{r_af + K_mK_b}

The back emf acts like extra viscous friction KmKb/raK_mK_b/r_a, which is why the effective time constant is reduced.

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

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