- 2082 Baisakh · 8+2 marks
Two-mass system transfer function and F-V analogy
Short answer
X2(s)/F(s) = K2 B1 / [ (K2 + B1s)(m1 s^2 + fc1 s + K1)(m2 s + fc2 + B2) + K2 B1{(m1+m2)s^2 + (fc1+fc2+B2)s + K1} ]. In force-voltage analogy, force → voltage, mass → inductor, friction/damper → resistor, spring → capacitor.
Obtain transfer function for the system as below considering displacement of mass M2 as output. Also develop Force-Voltage analogous circuit. [Figure: wall – spring K1 – mass m1 (force F applied, displacement x1, friction fc1 with ground) – spring K2 in series with damper B1 – mass m2 (displacement x2, friction fc2 with ground) – damper B2 – wall]
Assumptions: , are viscous friction coefficients of , with the ground; is the displacement of the massless junction between and ( on the side); zero initial conditions.
Equations of motion (Laplace form)
Mass :
Junction:
Mass :
Solving
and in series carry the same force, so they act as one coupling element
Let and . Then
Substituting , multiplying by and cancelling the common factor :
The denominator is a fourth-order polynomial; its leading term is and its constant term is .
Force–voltage (F-V) analogy
Force → voltage, mass → , friction/damper → , spring → , velocity → loop current. Mechanical series (, ) → electrical parallel (), shared by both loops.
+--[L1]--[Rf1]--[C1]--+--[L2]--[Rf2]--[RB2]--+
| | |
(F) i1 -> +--+--+ <- i2 |
| C2 RB1 |
| +--+--+ |
| | |
+---------------------+----------------------+
L1=m1, Rf1=fc1, C1=1/K1, C2=1/K2, RB1=B1
L2=m2, Rf2=fc2, RB2=B2
Loop equations, with :
where is the voltage across carrying in total; these match the mechanical equations.
✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)
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