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Three moment equation: beam with overhang

Short answer

Apply three-moment equation accounting for varying I and known overhang moment. Support moments: M1 = -13.636 kNm, M2 = -272.727 kNm, M3 = -40 kNm (hogging negative).

Determine the support moments and draw bending moment diagram of the continuous beam shown in figure below by using the three moment equation. [Figure: beam 1-2-3, 1 fixed; 100 kN at 4 m from 1, 2 at 8 m (I); span 2-3 = 10 m (2I) with 40 kN/m UDL; overhang of 2 m with 20 kN at the end.]

Reading of the figure: the beam is fixed at 1; span 1-2 = 8 m with II and a 100 kN load at 4 m from 1; span 2-3 = 10 m with 2I2I and 40 kN/m; the overhang 3-4 is 2 m with 20 kN at the free end. Supports 2 and 3 are on rollers. EE is constant.

Known moment at 3

The overhang is statically determinate: M3=−20×2=−40M_3 = -20\times2 = -40 kNm (hogging).

Three moment equation with different II

M1L1I1+2M2(L1I1+L2I2)+M3L2I2=−6a1xˉ1I1L1−6a2xˉ2I2L2M_1\frac{L_1}{I_1} + 2M_2\left(\frac{L_1}{I_1}+\frac{L_2}{I_2}\right) + M_3\frac{L_2}{I_2} = -\frac{6a_1\bar x_1}{I_1L_1} - \frac{6a_2\bar x_2}{I_2L_2}

Load terms:

  • Span 1-2: free BM peak =100×4×48=200= \dfrac{100\times4\times4}{8} = 200, a1=12(8)(200)=800a_1 = \tfrac12(8)(200) = 800, xˉ1=4\bar x_1 = 4: 6a1xˉ1L1=2400\dfrac{6a_1\bar x_1}{L_1} = 2400.
  • Span 2-3: wL234=40(10)34=10000\dfrac{wL_2^3}{4} = \dfrac{40(10)^3}{4} = 10000.

Equation at 1 (fixed end): 2M18I+M28I=−2400I2M_1\dfrac{8}{I} + M_2\dfrac{8}{I} = -\dfrac{2400}{I}

2M1+M2=−3002M_1 + M_2 = -300

Equation at 2: multiply by II: 8M1+2M2(8+102)+M3102=−2400−1000028M_1 + 2M_2\left(8 + \dfrac{10}{2}\right) + M_3\dfrac{10}{2} = -2400 - \dfrac{10000}{2}

8M1+26M2+5(−40)=−7400 ⇒ 8M1+26M2=−72008M_1 + 26M_2 + 5(-40) = -7400 \ \Rightarrow\ 8M_1 + 26M_2 = -7200

Substituting M1=−300−M22M_1 = \dfrac{-300 - M_2}{2}: −1200−4M2+26M2=−7200-1200 - 4M_2 + 26M_2 = -7200, so

M2=−272.727 kNm,M1=−13.636 kNmM_2 = -272.727\ \text{kNm},\qquad M_1 = -13.636\ \text{kNm}

(M1M_1 is a small hogging moment at the fixed end.)

Reactions

With sagging-positive moments, in span 1-2: M2=M1+8R1−100(4)M_2 = M_1 + 8R_1 - 100(4), so

R1=400+M2−M18=400+(−272.727)−(−13.636)8=17.614 kNR_1 = \frac{400 + M_2 - M_1}{8} = \frac{400 + (-272.727) - (-13.636)}{8} = 17.614\ \text{kN}

In span 2-3 (taking xx from 2): M3=M2+10V2R−401022M_3 = M_2 + 10V_{2R} - 40\frac{10^2}{2}, so

V2R=2000+M3−M210=2000−40−(−272.727)10=223.273 kNV_{2R} = \frac{2000 + M_3 - M_2}{10} = \frac{2000 - 40 - (-272.727)}{10} = 223.273\ \text{kN} R2=(100−17.614)+223.273=305.659 kN,R3=400−223.273+20=196.727 kNR_2 = (100 - 17.614) + 223.273 = 305.659\ \text{kN},\qquad R_3 = 400 - 223.273 + 20 = 196.727\ \text{kN}

Check: R1+R2+R3=520.00R_1 + R_2 + R_3 = 520.00 kN =100+400+20= 100 + 400 + 20.

Bending moment (kNm)

SectionBM
1 (fixed end)-13.64
Under the 100 kN load56.82
2-272.73
Maximum in span 2-3 (5.58 m from 2)350.41
3-40.00
4 (free end)0

Answer: M1=−13.636M_1 = -13.636 kNm, M2=−272.727M_2 = -272.727 kNm, M3=−40M_3 = -40 kNm.

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

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