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Define IRR; find IRR and ERR of project
Short answer
IRR is the discount rate that makes the project’s net present worth zero. For the given cash flow, IRR ≈ 19.2%, ERR ≈ 18.2%; both exceed MARR of 15%, so the project is acceptable.
Define IRR. Find IRR and ERR of the following project. MARR = ε = 15%.
| Year | 0 | 1 | 3 | 4 | 5 |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Cash Flow | -50 | -10 | 30 | 40 | 50 |
IRR
The internal rate of return (IRR) is the interest rate i* at which the PW (or FW, AW) of the net cash flow of a project is zero, i.e. PW of inflows = PW of outflows. A project is accepted if IRR ≥ MARR.
Numerical
Assumption: the table shows no cash flow at year 2, so it is taken as zero. Amounts are in the same unit as printed (say Rs thousand).
Year : 0 1 2 3 4 5
CF : -50 -10 0 +30 +40 +50
IRR (trial and error): PW(i) = −50 − 10(P/F, i, 1) + 30(P/F, i, 3) + 40(P/F, i, 4) + 50(P/F, i, 5)
| i | PW(i) |
|---|---|
| 15% | 8.759 |
| 18% | 2.271 |
| 20% | -1.588 |
| 19.16% | 0.000 |
Interpolating between 18% and 20%: IRR = 18 + 2 × 2.271/(2.271 − (-1.588)) ≈ 19.2%.
IRR ≈ 19.16% > MARR 15%.
ERR (external rate of return) with ε = 15%, N = 5:
- PW of outflows at ε: 50 + 10 (P/F, 15%, 1) = 50 + 10 × 0.8696 = 58.696
- FW of inflows at ε (year 5): 30 (F/P, 15%, 2) + 40 (F/P, 15%, 1) + 50 = 30 × 1.3225 + 40 × 1.15 + 50 = 135.675
- (1 + ERR)^5 = 135.675 / 58.696 = 2.3115
- ERR = (2.3115)^(1/5) − 1 = 18.24%
Answer: IRR ≈ 19.2%, ERR ≈ 18.2%. Both exceed MARR = 15%, so the project is acceptable. ERR is lower than IRR because the inflows are reinvested at 15%, not at the IRR.
✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)
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