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Rank projects by payback, PW, IRR, B/C

Short answer

Assuming MARR 10%, payback ranking (years): Item3 (1.43) > Item2 (4.00) > Item4 (4.56) > Item1 (5.00). Present worth (Rs): Item2 (104,974) > Item1 (31,273) > Item4 (7,151) > Item3 (1,580). IRR: Item3 (48.4%) > Item2 (24.8%) > Item1 (18.4%) > Item4 (17.6%). B/C ratio: Item2 (2.193) > Item3 (1.735) > Item1 (1.521) > Item4 (1.349). Item2 gives the largest absolute gain.

Rank by using payback method, present worth, IRR and B/C ratio method.

ItemInitial InvestmentAnnual Cash FlowLife in years
1Rs 600001200015
2Rs 880002200022
3Rs 215015003
4Rs 20500450010

MARR is not given, so 10% per year is assumed for present worth and B/C. Annual cash flows are treated as end-of-year benefits with no salvage value.

Formulas

Payback=IAPW=−I+A (1+i)n−1i(1+i)nIRR: PW(i)=0B/C=A (P/A,i,n)I\begin{aligned} \text{Payback} &= \frac{I}{A}\\ PW &= -I + A\,\frac{(1+i)^n - 1}{i(1+i)^n}\\ IRR:\ & PW(i) = 0\\ B/C &= \frac{A\,(P/A, i, n)}{I} \end{aligned}

Calculation

ItemPayback (years)PW at 10% (Rs)IRRB/C at 10%
15.0031,27318.42%1.521
24.00104,97424.81%2.193
31.431,58048.43%1.735
44.567,15117.62%1.349

Example for item 1: (P/A,10%,15)=7.6061(P/A,10\%,15) = 7.6061, so PW=−60,000+12,000×7.6061=31,273PW = -60{,}000 + 12{,}000 \times 7.6061 = 31,273 and B/C=1.521B/C = 1.521. IRR is found by trial so that PW=0PW = 0.

Ranking (best first)

MethodRanking
Payback (shorter is better)Item 3 > Item 2 > Item 4 > Item 1
Present worth (larger is better)Item 2 > Item 1 > Item 4 > Item 3
IRR (larger is better)Item 3 > Item 2 > Item 1 > Item 4
B/C ratio (larger is better)Item 2 > Item 3 > Item 1 > Item 4

Answer: Item 3 is best by payback and IRR and Item 2 is best by present worth and B/C. All four items have PW > 0, IRR > 10% and B/C > 1. Item 2 gives the largest absolute gain; Item 3 is very small in size (Rs 2,150), so present worth is preferred for the final decision (select Item 2 if only one can be taken).

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

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