Skip to main content

Single-mass system transfer function with F-V and F-I

Short answer

Transfer functions: X2(s)/F(s) = 1/(M2 s^2 + B2 s + K2), X1(s)/F(s) = (M2 s^2 + B2 s + K1+K2) / [K1 (M2 s^2 + B2 s + K2)]. In F-V analogy, K1 becomes 1/C1 shared between meshes; in F-I analogy, K1 becomes 1/L1.

Find transfer function for the system as in figure. Also develop F-V and F-I analogy circuits. [Figure: force f(t) applied at a free end (displacement x1(t)) connected through spring K1 to mass M2 (displacement x2(t)); M2 connected to the fixed wall through spring K2 in parallel with damper B2]

Displacements: x1x_1 (free end where ff acts) and x2x_2 (mass M2M_2). The free end has no mass.

Equations of motion

At the massless end, the spring force equals the applied force:

K1(x1−x2)=f(t)K_1(x_1 - x_2) = f(t)

For M2M_2:

M2x¨2+B2x˙2+K2x2+K1(x2−x1)=0M_2\ddot x_2 + B_2\dot x_2 + K_2x_2 + K_1(x_2 - x_1) = 0

Transfer functions

Laplace form:

K1X1−K1X2=F−K1X1+(M2s2+B2s+K1+K2)X2=0\begin{aligned} K_1X_1 - K_1X_2 &= F \\ -K_1X_1 + (M_2s^2 + B_2s + K_1 + K_2)X_2 &= 0 \end{aligned}

Adding the two equations: (M2s2+B2s+K2)X2=F(M_2s^2 + B_2s + K_2)X_2 = F, so

X2(s)F(s)=1M2s2+B2s+K2\frac{X_2(s)}{F(s)} = \frac{1}{M_2s^2 + B_2s + K_2}

and since X1=X2+F/K1X_1 = X_2 + F/K_1:

X1(s)F(s)=M2s2+B2s+K1+K2K1(M2s2+B2s+K2)\frac{X_1(s)}{F(s)} = \frac{M_2s^2 + B_2s + K_1 + K_2}{K_1(M_2s^2 + B_2s + K_2)}

The spring K1K_1 only passes the force on; it does not change the dynamics of M2M_2.

F-V analogy

f→ef\to e, M→LM\to L, B→RB\to R, K→1/CK\to 1/C. Mesh 1 (velocity x˙1\dot x_1) and mesh 2 (x˙2\dot x_2) share C1=1/K1C_1 = 1/K_1.

                   L2=M2   R2=B2   C2=1/K2
 +--------+--------LLLL----/\/\-----||---+
 |        |                              |
(~) e   C1=1/K1                          |
 |   i1   |              i2              |
 +--------+------------------------------+
1C1∫(i1−i2)dt=e,L2di2dt+R2i2+1C2∫i2dt+1C1∫(i2−i1)dt=0\frac{1}{C_1}\int(i_1 - i_2)dt = e, \qquad L_2\frac{di_2}{dt} + R_2i_2 + \frac{1}{C_2}\int i_2dt + \frac{1}{C_1}\int(i_2 - i_1)dt = 0

F-I analogy

f→if\to i, M→CM\to C, B→1/RB\to 1/R, K→1/LK\to 1/L.

 v1  L1   v2
 +--LLLL--+----+----+
 |        |    |    |
(i)       C2   R2   L2
 |        |    |    |
 +--------+----+----+ gnd

(L1=1/K1L_1 = 1/K_1, C2=M2C_2 = M_2, R2=1/B2R_2 = 1/B_2, L2=1/K2L_2 = 1/K_2.)

1L1∫(v1−v2)dt=i,C2dv2dt+v2R2+1L2∫v2dt+1L1∫(v2−v1)dt=0\frac{1}{L_1}\int(v_1 - v_2)dt = i, \qquad C_2\frac{dv_2}{dt} + \frac{v_2}{R_2} + \frac{1}{L_2}\int v_2dt + \frac{1}{L_1}\int(v_2 - v_1)dt = 0

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

All Control Systems chapter 2 questions →