- 2081 Chaitra (new course) · 3+1 marks
Fourier integral representation
Short answer
The Fourier integral of f(x)=e^(-x) (x>0), 0 (x<0) is f(x)= (1/π)∫_0^∞ (cos ωx+ω sin ωx)/(1+ω²) dω. Hence the given integral equals πe^(-x) (x>0), π/2 (x=0), 0 (x<0).
Find the Fourier integral of f(x) = e^(−x) for x > 0; 0 for x < 0, and hence show that ∫_0^∞ (cos ωx + ω sin ωx)/(1 + ω²) dω = π e^(−x) for x > 0; π/2 for x = 0; 0 for x < 0.
Fourier integral. f(x) = ∫₀^∞ [A(α) cos αx + B(α) sin αx] dα, where A(α) = (1/π)∫ f(v) cos αv dv and B(α) = (1/π)∫ f(v) sin αv dv.
For f(v) = e^(−v) (v > 0), 0 (v < 0):
A(α) = (1/π)∫₀^∞ e^(−v) cos αv dv = 1/[π(1 + α²)]
B(α) = (1/π)∫₀^∞ e^(−v) sin αv dv = α/[π(1 + α²)]
f(x) = (1/π) ∫₀^∞ (cos αx + α sin αx)/(1 + α²) dα
Deduction. Multiply both sides by π. The integral I(x) = ∫₀^∞ (cos ωx + ω sin ωx)/(1 + ω²) dω = π f(x), where at a jump f is replaced by the mean of its left and right limits. So:
- x > 0: f is continuous and equals e^(−x), so I = π e^(−x).
- x < 0: f = 0, so I = 0.
- x = 0: f jumps from 0 to 1, the integral converges to the mean (0 + 1)/2 = 1/2, so I = π/2.
Hence ∫₀^∞ (cos ωx + ω sin ωx)/(1 + ω²) dω = π e^(−x) for x > 0, π/2 for x = 0 and 0 for x < 0.
✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)
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