- 2070 Magh · 5 marks
Show 1/z⁴ is analytic except z = 0
Short answer
A function is analytic if differentiable in a neighbourhood. f(z)=1/z⁴ is analytic for z≠0, with f′(z)=−4/z⁵; it fails at z=0 because it is undefined.
Define analytic function. Show that the function f(z) = 1/z⁴ is analytic except at z = 0.
Analytic function
f(z) is analytic at a point if it is differentiable at that point and at all points in some neighbourhood of it.
Method 1: C–R equations in polar form
Let z = re^{iθ}. Then f(z) = z⁻⁴ = r⁻⁴ e^{−4iθ} = r⁻⁴ cos 4θ − i r⁻⁴ sin 4θ.
u = r⁻⁴ cos 4θ, v = −r⁻⁴ sin 4θ.
u_r = −4 r⁻⁵ cos 4θ u_θ = −4 r⁻⁴ sin 4θ
v_r = 4 r⁻⁵ sin 4θ v_θ = −4 r⁻⁴ cos 4θ
Check the polar C–R equations (valid for r ≠ 0):
- u_r = −4r⁻⁵ cos 4θ and (1/r) v_θ = −4r⁻⁵ cos 4θ. Equal ✓
- v_r = 4r⁻⁵ sin 4θ and −(1/r) u_θ = 4r⁻⁵ sin 4θ. Equal ✓
All partial derivatives are continuous for r ≠ 0, so the C–R equations are satisfied and sufficient conditions hold. Hence f is analytic at every z ≠ 0.
Method 2: direct differentiation
For z ≠ 0,
f′(z) = lim_{h→0} [ (z + h)⁻⁴ − z⁻⁴ ] / h = lim [ z⁴ − (z + h)⁴ ] / [ h z⁴ (z + h)⁴ ] = −4z³/(z⁴ · z⁴) = −4/z⁵.
The limit exists at every z ≠ 0.
At z = 0, f is not even defined, so it is not differentiable there.
Conclusion: f(z) = 1/z⁴ is analytic everywhere except at z = 0, and f′(z) = −4/z⁵.
✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)
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