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Show 1/z⁴ is analytic except z = 0

Short answer

A function is analytic if differentiable in a neighbourhood. f(z)=1/z⁴ is analytic for z≠0, with f′(z)=−4/z⁵; it fails at z=0 because it is undefined.

Define analytic function. Show that the function f(z) = 1/z⁴ is analytic except at z = 0.

Analytic function

f(z) is analytic at a point if it is differentiable at that point and at all points in some neighbourhood of it.

Method 1: C–R equations in polar form

Let z = re^{iθ}. Then f(z) = z⁻⁴ = r⁻⁴ e^{−4iθ} = r⁻⁴ cos 4θ − i r⁻⁴ sin 4θ.

u = r⁻⁴ cos 4θ, v = −r⁻⁴ sin 4θ.

u_r = −4 r⁻⁵ cos 4θ        u_θ = −4 r⁻⁴ sin 4θ
v_r =  4 r⁻⁵ sin 4θ        v_θ = −4 r⁻⁴ cos 4θ

Check the polar C–R equations (valid for r ≠ 0):

  • u_r = −4r⁻⁵ cos 4θ and (1/r) v_θ = −4r⁻⁵ cos 4θ. Equal ✓
  • v_r = 4r⁻⁵ sin 4θ and −(1/r) u_θ = 4r⁻⁵ sin 4θ. Equal ✓

All partial derivatives are continuous for r ≠ 0, so the C–R equations are satisfied and sufficient conditions hold. Hence f is analytic at every z ≠ 0.

Method 2: direct differentiation

For z ≠ 0,

f′(z) = lim_{h→0} [ (z + h)⁻⁴ − z⁻⁴ ] / h = lim [ z⁴ − (z + h)⁴ ] / [ h z⁴ (z + h)⁴ ] = −4z³/(z⁴ · z⁴) = −4/z⁵.

The limit exists at every z ≠ 0.

At z = 0, f is not even defined, so it is not differentiable there.

Conclusion: f(z) = 1/z⁴ is analytic everywhere except at z = 0, and f′(z) = −4/z⁵.

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

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