Skip to main content

Ritz method for bar with distributed load

Short answer

Minimize total potential energy with u=a1x+a2x^2. Set derivatives to zero: a1=1.143e-3, a2=-1.429e-7 per mm; end displacement u(L)=1.714 mm. Exact, since the trial space contains the true quadratic solution.

A uniform bar of length 2 m, area 300 mm2^2 and E=70E = 70 GPa is fixed at x=0x = 0. It carries a uniformly distributed axial load of 6 kN/m along its length and a point axial load of 12 kN at the free end. Using the Rayleigh-Ritz method with u=a1x+a2x2u = a_1x + a_2x^2, find the coefficients and the end displacement. Is the result exact?

Data (units: N, mm)

AE=300×70×103=2.1×107AE = 300 \times 70\times10^3 = 2.1\times10^7 N, L=2000L = 2000 mm, q=6q = 6 N/mm, P=12 000P = 12\,000 N.

The trial function satisfies u(0)=0u(0) = 0.

Potential energy

Π=AE2∫0L(dudx)2dx−q∫0Lu dx−P u(L)\Pi = \frac{AE}{2}\int_0^L\left(\frac{du}{dx}\right)^2dx - q\int_0^L u\,dx - P\,u(L)

With u′=a1+2a2xu' = a_1 + 2a_2x:

∫0Lu′2dx=a12L+2a1a2L2+43a22L3∫0Lu dx=12a1L2+13a2L3u(L)=a1L+a2L2\begin{aligned} \int_0^L u'^2dx &= a_1^2L + 2a_1a_2L^2 + \tfrac{4}{3}a_2^2L^3 \\ \int_0^L u\,dx &= \tfrac{1}{2}a_1L^2 + \tfrac{1}{3}a_2L^3 \\ u(L) &= a_1L + a_2L^2 \end{aligned}

Stationary conditions

∂Π∂a1=AE (a1L+a2L2)−12qL2−PL=0∂Π∂a2=AE (a1L2+43a2L3)−13qL3−PL2=0\begin{aligned} \frac{\partial\Pi}{\partial a_1} &= AE\,(a_1L + a_2L^2) - \tfrac{1}{2}qL^2 - PL = 0 \\ \frac{\partial\Pi}{\partial a_2} &= AE\,(a_1L^2 + \tfrac{4}{3}a_2L^3) - \tfrac{1}{3}qL^3 - PL^2 = 0 \end{aligned}

Divide the first by LL and the second by L2L^2:

AE (a1+a2L)=12qL+P=6000+12 000=18 000AE (a1+43a2L)=13qL+P=4000+12 000=16 000\begin{aligned} AE\,(a_1 + a_2L) &= \tfrac{1}{2}qL + P = 6000 + 12\,000 = 18\,000 \\ AE\,(a_1 + \tfrac{4}{3}a_2L) &= \tfrac{1}{3}qL + P = 4000 + 12\,000 = 16\,000 \end{aligned}

Subtract: AE 13a2L=−2000AE\,\tfrac{1}{3}a_2L = -2000, so a2=−6000AE L=−60004.2×1010=−1.4286×10−7 mm−1a_2 = \dfrac{-6000}{AE\,L} = \dfrac{-6000}{4.2\times10^{10}} = -1.4286\times10^{-7}\ \text{mm}^{-1}.

Then a1=18 000AE−a2L=8.5714×10−4+2.8571×10−4=1.1429×10−3a_1 = \dfrac{18\,000}{AE} - a_2L = 8.5714\times10^{-4} + 2.8571\times10^{-4} = 1.1429\times10^{-3}.

End displacement

u(L)=a1L+a2L2=2.2857−0.5714=1.714 mmu(L) = a_1L + a_2L^2 = 2.2857 - 0.5714 = 1.714\ \text{mm}

Exactness

The exact solution of AE u′′+q=0AE\,u'' + q = 0 with u(0)=0u(0) = 0 and AE u′(L)=PAE\,u'(L) = P is

u=(P+qL)AEx−q2AEx2u = \frac{(P + qL)}{AE}x - \frac{q}{2AE}x^2

which is a quadratic. Our coefficients match it (24 0002.1×107=1.1429×10−3\frac{24\,000}{2.1\times10^7} = 1.1429\times10^{-3} and 64.2×107=1.4286×10−7\frac{6}{4.2\times10^7} = 1.4286\times10^{-7}). So the result is exact because the trial function contains the exact solution.

Answer: a1=1.143×10−3a_1 = 1.143\times10^{-3}, a2=−1.429×10−7 mm−1a_2 = -1.429\times10^{-7}\ \text{mm}^{-1}; end displacement =1.714= 1.714 mm; yes, exact.

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

All Finite Element Method chapter 4 questions →