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Turning time and metal removal rate

Short answer

Depth of cut = (50-44)/2 = 3 mm. Spindle speed N = 1000×30/(π×50) ≈ 191 rpm. Tool travel = 300+5 = 305 mm, time = 305/(0.3×191) = 5.32 min. MRR = π × (50+44)/2 × 3 × 0.3 ×191 ≈ 25.4 cm³/min.

A 50 mm diameter, 300 mm long mild steel bar is turned to 44 mm diameter in a single pass on a lathe at a cutting speed of 30 m/min and feed of 0.3 mm/rev. Take total tool travel as the bar length plus 5 mm for approach and over-run. Find (a) depth of cut, (b) spindle speed, (c) machining time, (d) metal removal rate.

Given: D1 = 50 mm, D2 = 44 mm, length 300 mm, v = 30 m/min, f = 0.3 mm/rev, approach and over-run = 5 mm.

(a) Depth of cut

d=D1−D22=50−442=3 mmd = \frac{D_1 - D_2}{2} = \frac{50-44}{2} = 3\ \text{mm}

(b) Spindle speed

The cutting speed is based on the original diameter.

N=1000 vπD1=1000×30π×50=191.0 rpmN = \frac{1000\,v}{\pi D_1} = \frac{1000\times 30}{\pi\times 50} = 191.0\ \text{rpm}

(c) Machining time

Tool travel L=300+5=305L = 300 + 5 = 305 mm.

T=Lf N=3050.3×191.0=5.32 minT = \frac{L}{f\,N} = \frac{305}{0.3\times 191.0} = 5.32\ \text{min}

(d) Metal removal rate

Use the mean diameter, Davg=(50+44)/2=47D_{avg} = (50+44)/2 = 47 mm.

MRR=πDavg d f N=π×47×3×0.3×191.0=25,380 mm3/min\begin{aligned} \text{MRR} &= \pi D_{avg}\, d\, f\, N \\ &= \pi \times 47 \times 3 \times 0.3 \times 191.0 \\ &= 25{,}380\ \text{mm}^3/\text{min} \end{aligned}

(Check: volume removed = π4(502−442)×300=132,890\frac{\pi}{4}(50^2-44^2)\times 300 = 132{,}890 mm³; dividing by the cutting time for 300 mm, 300/(0.3 x 191.0) = 5.24 min, gives about 25,380 mm³/min, which agrees.)

QuantityValue
Depth of cut3 mm
N191 rpm
Time5.32 min
MRR25.4 cm³/min

Answer: d = 3 mm, N = 191 rpm, T = 5.32 min, MRR = 25.4 cm³/min.

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

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