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Mass inside a mass: transfer function and F-I analogy

Short answer

Write equations for M₁ and M₂, eliminate X₁, yielding X₂(s)/F(s) = k₁ / [M₁M₂ s⁴ + (M₁k₁+M₂(k₁+k₂))s² + k₁k₂]. F–I analogy: f→i, M→C, k→1/L; circuit: C₁=M₁, C₂=M₂ to ground, L₂=1/k₂ from v₁ to ground, L₁=1/k₁ between v₁ and v₂.

Consider displacement of mass M2 as output and find transfer function of the mechanical system as in figure. Also find F-I analogous circuit. [Figure: mass M1 is a hollow frame resting on the ground, with force f applied; mass M2 sits inside M1 and is connected to M1 through spring k1; M1 is connected to the right wall through spring k2]

Let x1x_1 = displacement of the outer frame M1M_1 and x2x_2 = displacement of the inner mass M2M_2. Assumption: no friction (none is shown) between M1M_1 and ground or between M2M_2 and M1M_1.

Free body equations

  • M1M_1: force ff acts; spring k2k_2 to the wall resists by k2x1k_2x_1; spring k1k_1 pulls by k1(x1−x2)k_1(x_1 - x_2).
  • M2M_2: only spring k1k_1 acts, k1(x2−x1)k_1(x_2 - x_1).
M1x¨1+k1(x1−x2)+k2x1=fM2x¨2+k1(x2−x1)=0\begin{aligned} M_1\ddot x_1 + k_1(x_1 - x_2) + k_2x_1 &= f \\ M_2\ddot x_2 + k_1(x_2 - x_1) &= 0 \end{aligned}

Laplace form

(M1s2+k1+k2)X1−k1X2=F−k1X1+(M2s2+k1)X2=0\begin{aligned} (M_1s^2 + k_1 + k_2)X_1 - k_1X_2 &= F \\ -k_1X_1 + (M_2s^2 + k_1)X_2 &= 0 \end{aligned}

From the second equation, X1=M2s2+k1k1X2X_1 = \dfrac{M_2s^2 + k_1}{k_1}X_2. Substituting:

[(M1s2+k1+k2)(M2s2+k1)−k12]X2=k1F\left[(M_1s^2 + k_1 + k_2)(M_2s^2 + k_1) - k_1^2\right]X_2 = k_1F

Transfer function

X2(s)F(s)=k1M1M2s4+[M1k1+M2(k1+k2)]s2+k1k2\frac{X_2(s)}{F(s)} = \frac{k_1}{M_1M_2s^4 + \left[M_1k_1 + M_2(k_1 + k_2)\right]s^2 + k_1k_2}

With no damping the poles lie on the jωj\omega axis (undamped oscillation at two natural frequencies).

F-I analogous circuit

f→if\to i, M→CM\to C, k→1/Lk\to 1/L, velocity →\to node voltage. Note that M2M_2 is referred to the ground reference (absolute velocity), so its capacitor goes to ground.

 v1           L1    v2
 +----+----+--LLLL--+
 |    |    |        |
(i)   C1   L2       C2
 |    |    |        |
 +----+----+--------+ gnd

(C1=M1C_1 = M_1, L2=1/k2L_2 = 1/k_2, L1=1/k1L_1 = 1/k_1, C2=M2C_2 = M_2.)

C1dv1dt+1L2∫v1dt+1L1∫(v1−v2)dt=iC2dv2dt+1L1∫(v2−v1)dt=0\begin{aligned} C_1\frac{dv_1}{dt} + \frac{1}{L_2}\int v_1dt + \frac{1}{L_1}\int(v_1 - v_2)dt &= i \\ C_2\frac{dv_2}{dt} + \frac{1}{L_1}\int(v_2 - v_1)dt &= 0 \end{aligned}

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

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