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Effective mass can be positive or negative

Short answer

Effective mass m* = ħ²/(d²E/dk²). Near the bottom of a band, d²E/dk² > 0 gives m* > 0; near the top, d²E/dk² < 0 gives m* < 0, meaning the electron accelerates opposite to an applied force, a consequence of the band's concave downward curvature.

Derive the expression for effective mass of electron and show that it can be positive as well as negative.

The effective mass m∗m^* is the mass an electron in a crystal appears to have when it is accelerated by an external force; it includes the effect of the periodic lattice potential. It is given by m∗=ℏ2/(d2E/dk2)m^* = \hbar^2/(d^2E/dk^2).

Derivation

An electron in a crystal is a wave packet. Its velocity is the group velocity:

vg=dωdk=1ℏdEdk(E=ℏω)v_g = \frac{d\omega}{dk} = \frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{dE}{dk} \qquad (E = \hbar\omega)

If an external force FF (e.g. −eE-eE) acts for time dtdt, the work done raises the electron's energy:

dE=F vg dt=F1ℏdEdkdtdE = F\,v_g\,dt = F\frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{dE}{dk}dt

Since dE=dEdkdkdE = \frac{dE}{dk}dk, this gives

F=ℏdkdtF = \hbar\frac{dk}{dt}

The acceleration is

a=dvgdt=1ℏddt(dEdk)=1ℏd2Edk2dkdt=1ℏ2d2Edk2 F\begin{aligned} a &= \frac{dv_g}{dt} = \frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{dE}{dk}\right) = \frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{d^2E}{dk^2}\frac{dk}{dt} \\ &= \frac{1}{\hbar^2}\frac{d^2E}{dk^2}\,F \end{aligned}

Comparing with F=m∗aF = m^*a:

m∗=ℏ2d2Edk2m^* = \frac{\hbar^2}{\dfrac{d^2E}{dk^2}}

Positive and negative effective mass

In a crystal the E–k curve of a band is not a simple parabola. In the tight-binding picture a band can be written as

E(k)=E0−2γcos⁡(ka),γ>0E(k) = E_0 - 2\gamma\cos(ka), \qquad \gamma > 0

Then

d2Edk2=2γa2cos⁡(ka),m∗=ℏ22γa2cos⁡(ka)\frac{d^2E}{dk^2} = 2\gamma a^2\cos(ka), \qquad m^* = \frac{\hbar^2}{2\gamma a^2\cos(ka)}
   E
   ^      top of band: curve bends down
   |  ___                         ___
   | /   \  m* < 0          m*<0 /   \
   |      \                     /
   |       \ <- inflection:    /
   |        \   m* = infinite /
   |         \               /
   |          \__         __/ <- bottom: m* > 0
   |             '--___--'
   +---|---------|---------|-------> k
     -pi/a       0       +pi/a
  • Near the bottom of the band (k≈0k \approx 0): cos⁡ka≈1\cos ka \approx 1, the curve is concave up, d2E/dk2>0d^2E/dk^2 > 0, so m∗m^* is positive. Here E≈Emin+ℏ2k2/2m∗E \approx E_{min} + \hbar^2k^2/2m^*, like a free electron.
  • Near the top of the band (k≈±π/ak \approx \pm\pi/a): cos⁡ka≈−1\cos ka \approx -1, the curve is concave down, d2E/dk2<0d^2E/dk^2 < 0, so m∗m^* is negative. An applied force makes the electron accelerate opposite to the force, because it is being Bragg-reflected by the lattice.
  • At the inflection points (k=±π/2ak = \pm\pi/2a): d2E/dk2=0d^2E/dk^2 = 0, so m∗→∞m^* \to \infty; the electron does not accelerate at all.

Significance

An electron with negative mass and negative charge near the top of the valence band behaves like a particle with positive mass and positive charge. This is the idea of the hole, used to describe conduction in the valence band of semiconductors.

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

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