Skip to main content

Chapter 1 · 8 hours

Theory of Metals

IOE past exam questions

Past questions and answers

53 questions set from this chapter, 15 of them more than once. Most asked first.

  • Asked 6 times
  • 2079 Bhadra · 6 marks
  • 2073 Chaitra · 6 marks
  • 2072 Kartik · 6 marks
  • 2070 Chaitra · 6 marks
  • 2069 Asar · 6 marks
  • 2068 Chaitra · 6 marks

Explain how energy bands are formed in solids taking the example of N number of Lithium atoms for the explanation.

Answer

An energy band is a group of very closely spaced allowed energy levels that forms when a large number of atoms come together to make a solid. It forms because the outer orbitals of neighbouring atoms overlap and, by the Pauli exclusion principle, each atomic level must split into many slightly different levels.

Lithium atom

Lithium (Z = 3) has the configuration 1s2 2s11s^2\,2s^1. The 1s shell is full; the 2s orbital has one electron and room for one more.

Two Li atoms

When two Li atoms come close, their 2s orbitals overlap. The two atomic 2s orbitals combine (LCAO) into two molecular orbitals:

  • a bonding orbital, with lower energy than the atomic 2s level, and
  • an antibonding orbital, with higher energy.

So the single 2s level splits into 2 levels. The 1s orbitals lie close to the nuclei and hardly overlap, so they split very little.

N Li atoms

For NN atoms (about 102310^{23} per cm³ in a solid) the 2s level splits into N separate levels. They are so close together (spacing of order 10−2210^{-22} eV) that they form an almost continuous 2s band.

 Energy
   ^         separated atoms     solid (N atoms)
   |  2p .........................######  2p band
   |                       ######### (overlap)
   |  2s ..................#########  2s band
   |                       #########  (N levels)
   |
   |  1s ..........................-   1s band
   |                                  (narrow, full)
   +-----------------------|-----------------> r
                          r0     interatomic distance
  • Each level holds 2 electrons (spin up/down), so the 2s band has 2N2N states.
  • N Li atoms supply only NN valence electrons, so the 2s band is only half filled.
  • The 1s band (2N2N states, 2N2N electrons) is full and very narrow because the 1s orbitals overlap very little.
  • At the equilibrium spacing r0r_0, the 2s and 2p bands overlap, giving one wide band with many empty states just above the filled ones.

Result

Because the highest band is partly filled, electrons can easily move into empty states just above them when a small field is applied. This is why lithium (and other alkali metals) are good conductors. The band width depends on how much the orbitals overlap: outer orbitals give wide bands, inner orbitals give narrow ones.

  • Asked 5 times
  • 2081 Chaitra (new course) · 5 marks
  • 2080 Bhadra · 8 marks
  • 2076 Asoj · 8 marks
  • 2069 Chaitra · 8 marks
  • 2068 Chaitra · 8 marks

What is tunneling in quantum mechanics? With necessary mathematical expression, explain the nature of wave function in different regions in case of tunneling.

Answer

Quantum tunneling is the passing of a particle through a potential barrier whose height V0V_0 is greater than the particle's energy EE. In classical mechanics this is impossible, but in quantum mechanics the wave function does not become zero inside the barrier. It decays, so a small part of it comes out on the other side and there is a finite chance of finding the particle there.

Barrier and regions

 V(x)
  ^
  |            +----------+   V = V0
  |            |          |
  |  - - - - - |- - - - - |- - - - -  E < V0
  |  Region I  | Region II| Region III
  |  V = 0     | V = V0   | V = 0
--+------------+----------+-----------> x
               0          a

The time-independent Schrödinger equation is

d2ψdx2+2mℏ2(E−V)ψ=0\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + \frac{2m}{\hbar^2}(E - V)\psi = 0

Region I (x<0x < 0, V=0V = 0)

ψ1=Aejkx+Be−jkx,k=2mEℏ\psi_1 = A e^{jkx} + B e^{-jkx}, \qquad k = \frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{\hbar}

AejkxA e^{jkx} is the incident wave and Be−jkxB e^{-jkx} the reflected wave. The wave function is oscillatory.

Region II (0≤x≤a0 \le x \le a, V=V0>EV = V_0 > E)

d2ψ2dx2−α2ψ2=0,α=2m(V0−E)ℏ\frac{d^2\psi_2}{dx^2} - \alpha^2\psi_2 = 0, \qquad \alpha = \frac{\sqrt{2m(V_0 - E)}}{\hbar} ψ2=Ceαx+De−αx\psi_2 = C e^{\alpha x} + D e^{-\alpha x}

The solution is exponential, not oscillatory. For a wide barrier the decaying term dominates, so ψ\psi falls off roughly as e−αxe^{-\alpha x} inside the barrier.

Region III (x>ax > a, V=0V = 0)

ψ3=Fejkx\psi_3 = F e^{jkx}

Only a transmitted wave travels to the right (there is nothing to reflect it back). It is oscillatory with the same kk (same energy) but a much smaller amplitude.

Boundary conditions

ψ\psi and dψ/dxd\psi/dx must be continuous at x=0x = 0 and x=ax = a. These four conditions fix B,C,D,FB, C, D, F in terms of AA.

Transmission probability

T=∣F∣2∣A∣2≈T0 e−2αa,T0=16EV0(1−EV0)T = \frac{|F|^2}{|A|^2} \approx T_0\, e^{-2\alpha a}, \qquad T_0 = 16\frac{E}{V_0}\left(1 - \frac{E}{V_0}\right)

(valid when αa≫1\alpha a \gg 1). TT falls very quickly as the barrier width aa, the mass mm or (V0−E)(V_0 - E) increases.

 psi(x)
     Region I       Region II     Region III
  /\    /\    /\ |\            |
 /  \  /  \  /  \| \           |
/    \/    \/    |  \__        |/\/\/\/\/\/\
                 |     ``--..__|  (small amp.)
                 0             a

Examples

Alpha decay of nuclei, the tunnel diode, the scanning tunneling microscope (STM), and conduction through thin oxide layers between metal contacts all rely on tunneling.

  • Asked 4 times
  • 2080 Baisakh · 8 marks
  • 2079 Bhadra · 8 marks
  • 2075 Chaitra · 8 marks
  • 2074 Chaitra · 8 marks

Prove that the energy of a particle confined in an infinite potential well is quantized. Find also the expression for normalized wave function and draw graph for Ψ and |Ψ|².

Answer

A particle in an infinite potential well of width LL is free inside the well (V=0V = 0 for 0<x<L0 < x < L) but cannot leave it (V=∞V = \infty outside). Applying the Schrödinger equation with the boundary conditions shows that only certain discrete energies are allowed.

 V = inf |                    | V = inf
         |                    |
         |      V = 0         |
         |   (particle here)  |
         +--------------------+
         0                    L    x

Solving the Schrödinger equation

Outside the well ψ=0\psi = 0. Inside, with V=0V = 0:

d2ψdx2+k2ψ=0,k2=2mEℏ2\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + k^2\psi = 0, \qquad k^2 = \frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}

General solution:

ψ(x)=Asin⁡kx+Bcos⁡kx\psi(x) = A\sin kx + B\cos kx

Applying boundary conditions

  • At x=0x = 0: ψ(0)=0⇒B=0\psi(0) = 0 \Rightarrow B = 0, so ψ=Asin⁡kx\psi = A\sin kx.
  • At x=Lx = L: ψ(L)=Asin⁡kL=0\psi(L) = A\sin kL = 0. Since A≠0A \neq 0, sin⁡kL=0\sin kL = 0:
kL=nπ⇒kn=nπL,n=1,2,3,…kL = n\pi \quad\Rightarrow\quad k_n = \frac{n\pi}{L}, \qquad n = 1, 2, 3, \ldots

(n=0n = 0 gives ψ=0\psi = 0 everywhere, i.e. no particle, so it is excluded.)

Quantized energy

En=ℏ2kn22m=ℏ22m⋅n2π2L2=n2h28mL2\begin{aligned} E_n &= \frac{\hbar^2 k_n^2}{2m} = \frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\cdot\frac{n^2\pi^2}{L^2} \\ &= \frac{n^2 h^2}{8 m L^2} \end{aligned}

Since nn can only be a whole number, the energy can take only the values E1,4E1,9E1,…E_1, 4E_1, 9E_1, \ldots where E1=h2/(8mL2)E_1 = h^2/(8mL^2). The energy is quantized. The lowest energy E1E_1 is not zero (zero-point energy).

Normalized wave function

The particle must be somewhere in the well:

∫0L∣ψ∣2dx=A2∫0Lsin⁡2nπxL dx=A2⋅L2=1A=2L\begin{aligned} \int_0^L |\psi|^2 dx &= A^2\int_0^L \sin^2\frac{n\pi x}{L}\,dx = A^2\cdot\frac{L}{2} = 1 \\ A &= \sqrt{\frac{2}{L}} \end{aligned} ψn(x)=2L sin⁡nπxL,0≤x≤L\psi_n(x) = \sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}\,\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L}, \qquad 0 \le x \le L

Graphs of ψn\psi_n and ∣ψn∣2|\psi_n|^2

        psi_n(x)                 |psi_n(x)|^2
 n=3 |  _         _  |      |  _    _    _  |  E3=9E1
     | / \       / \ |      | / \  / \  / \ |
     |/   \     /   \|      |/   \/   \/   \|
     0     \_ _/     L      0               L

 n=2 |   _           |      |   _       _   |  E2=4E1
     |  / \          |      |  / \     / \  |
     |_/   \       _/|      |_/   \___/   \_|
     0      \_____/  L      0               L

 n=1 |    .----.     |      |     .--.      |  E1
     |  /        \   |      |   /      \    |
     |/            \ |      |__/        \___|
     0               L      0               L
  • ψn\psi_n has (n−1)(n - 1) nodes inside the well; it fits exactly nn half-wavelengths, L=nλ/2L = n\lambda/2.
  • ∣ψn∣2|\psi_n|^2 gives the probability density. For n=1n = 1 the particle is most likely at the centre; for n=2n = 2 it is never found at x=L/2x = L/2, which is quite unlike a classical particle.
  • Asked 4 times
  • 2082 Kartik (new course) · 5 marks
  • 2075 Chaitra · 6 marks
  • 2070 Asar · 6 marks
  • 2068 Baisakh · 6 marks

Explain the concept of effective mass in crystal with necessary mathematical expression.

Answer

The effective mass m∗m^* of an electron in a crystal is the mass it appears to have when it responds to an external force, after the effect of all the internal forces from the lattice ions and other electrons has been included in it. It lets us treat a crystal electron as if it were a free particle with mass m∗m^*.

Why it is needed

Inside a crystal an electron feels the external force FextF_{ext} (for example −eE-eE from an applied field) and also the internal periodic force FintF_{int} from the lattice. Newton's law gives

Fext+Fint=meaF_{ext} + F_{int} = m_e a

FintF_{int} is very complicated and changes from point to point. We therefore write

Fext=m∗aF_{ext} = m^* a

and put all the effect of the lattice into m∗m^*.

Expression for m∗m^*

The electron is a wave packet that moves with the group velocity

vg=dωdk=1ℏdEdkv_g = \frac{d\omega}{dk} = \frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{dE}{dk}

Its acceleration is

a=dvgdt=1ℏd2Edk2dkdta = \frac{dv_g}{dt} = \frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{d^2E}{dk^2}\frac{dk}{dt}

In time dtdt the external force does work dE=Fextvg dtdE = F_{ext}v_g\,dt, so dEdkdk=Fext1ℏdEdkdt\frac{dE}{dk}dk = F_{ext}\frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{dE}{dk}dt, giving

Fext=ℏdkdtF_{ext} = \hbar\frac{dk}{dt}

Substituting dk/dt=Fext/ℏdk/dt = F_{ext}/\hbar:

a=1ℏ2d2Edk2Fext⇒m∗=ℏ2d2E/dk2a = \frac{1}{\hbar^2}\frac{d^2E}{dk^2}F_{ext} \quad\Rightarrow\quad m^* = \frac{\hbar^2}{d^2E/dk^2}

Meaning

  • m∗m^* depends on the curvature of the E–k curve. A sharply curved band gives a small m∗m^* (light, fast electron); a flat band gives a large m∗m^*.
  • For a free electron E=ℏ2k2/2meE = \hbar^2k^2/2m_e, so d2E/dk2=ℏ2/med^2E/dk^2 = \hbar^2/m_e and m∗=mem^* = m_e.
  • Near the bottom of a band m∗m^* is positive; near the top it is negative (this is why holes are used); at the inflection point it is infinite.

Typical values

Materialme∗/mem_e^*/m_emh∗/mem_h^*/m_e
Si1.080.56
Ge0.550.37
GaAs0.0670.48

The small m∗m^* of electrons in GaAs is why GaAs devices are faster than Si devices.

  • Asked 3 times
  • 2081 Bhadra · 4 marks
  • 2075 Chaitra · 4 marks
  • 2072 Chaitra · 4 marks

An electron is confined to an infinite potential well of size 0.1nm. Calculate the ground energy of the electron and radian frequency. How this electron can be put to the third energy level?

Answer

For an electron in an infinite well the allowed energies are En=n2h28mL2E_n = \dfrac{n^2h^2}{8mL^2}.

Given: L=0.1 nm=1×10−10L = 0.1\ \text{nm} = 1\times10^{-10} m, m=9.1×10−31m = 9.1\times10^{-31} kg, h=6.626×10−34h = 6.626\times10^{-34} J s, ℏ=h/2π=1.055×10−34\hbar = h/2\pi = 1.055\times10^{-34} J s.

Ground state energy (n=1n = 1)

E1=h28mL2=(6.626×10−34)28×9.1×10−31×(10−10)2=4.390×10−677.28×10−50=6.03×10−18 J=6.03×10−181.6×10−19=37.7 eV\begin{aligned} E_1 &= \frac{h^2}{8mL^2} = \frac{(6.626\times10^{-34})^2}{8\times9.1\times10^{-31}\times(10^{-10})^2} \\ &= \frac{4.390\times10^{-67}}{7.28\times10^{-50}} = 6.03\times10^{-18}\ \text{J} \\ &= \frac{6.03\times10^{-18}}{1.6\times10^{-19}} = 37.7\ \text{eV} \end{aligned}

Radian frequency

ω1=E1ℏ=6.03×10−181.055×10−34=5.72×1016 rad/s\begin{aligned} \omega_1 &= \frac{E_1}{\hbar} = \frac{6.03\times10^{-18}}{1.055\times10^{-34}} \\ &= 5.72\times10^{16}\ \text{rad/s} \end{aligned}

Putting the electron in the third level

E3=32E1=9×37.7=339.2 eVΔE=E3−E1=8E1=301.5 eV=4.82×10−17 J\begin{aligned} E_3 &= 3^2E_1 = 9\times37.7 = 339.2\ \text{eV} \\ \Delta E &= E_3 - E_1 = 8E_1 = 301.5\ \text{eV} = 4.82\times10^{-17}\ \text{J} \end{aligned}

The electron must absorb exactly this energy. It can be given by a photon of wavelength

λ=hcΔE=6.626×10−34×3×1084.82×10−17=4.12×10−9 m=4.12 nm\lambda = \frac{hc}{\Delta E} = \frac{6.626\times10^{-34}\times3\times10^{8}}{4.82\times10^{-17}} = 4.12\times10^{-9}\ \text{m} = 4.12\ \text{nm}

(a soft X-ray photon), or by a collision with another particle that transfers 301.5 eV.

Answer: E1=6.03×10−18E_1 = 6.03\times10^{-18} J =37.7= 37.7 eV; ω=5.72×1016\omega = 5.72\times10^{16} rad/s; to reach n=3n = 3 the electron must absorb 301.5301.5 eV, e.g. a photon of λ≈4.12\lambda \approx 4.12 nm.

  • Asked 3 times
  • 2081 Bhadra · 2+6 marks
  • 2071 Shrawan · 8 marks
  • 2068 Shrawan · 8 marks

Derive the expression for effective mass of electron and show that it can be positive as well as negative.

Answer

The effective mass m∗m^* is the mass an electron in a crystal appears to have when it is accelerated by an external force; it includes the effect of the periodic lattice potential. It is given by m∗=ℏ2/(d2E/dk2)m^* = \hbar^2/(d^2E/dk^2).

Derivation

An electron in a crystal is a wave packet. Its velocity is the group velocity:

vg=dωdk=1ℏdEdk(E=ℏω)v_g = \frac{d\omega}{dk} = \frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{dE}{dk} \qquad (E = \hbar\omega)

If an external force FF (e.g. −eE-eE) acts for time dtdt, the work done raises the electron's energy:

dE=F vg dt=F1ℏdEdkdtdE = F\,v_g\,dt = F\frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{dE}{dk}dt

Since dE=dEdkdkdE = \frac{dE}{dk}dk, this gives

F=ℏdkdtF = \hbar\frac{dk}{dt}

The acceleration is

a=dvgdt=1ℏddt(dEdk)=1ℏd2Edk2dkdt=1ℏ2d2Edk2 F\begin{aligned} a &= \frac{dv_g}{dt} = \frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{d}{dt}\left(\frac{dE}{dk}\right) = \frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{d^2E}{dk^2}\frac{dk}{dt} \\ &= \frac{1}{\hbar^2}\frac{d^2E}{dk^2}\,F \end{aligned}

Comparing with F=m∗aF = m^*a:

m∗=ℏ2d2Edk2m^* = \frac{\hbar^2}{\dfrac{d^2E}{dk^2}}

Positive and negative effective mass

In a crystal the E–k curve of a band is not a simple parabola. In the tight-binding picture a band can be written as

E(k)=E0−2γcos⁡(ka),γ>0E(k) = E_0 - 2\gamma\cos(ka), \qquad \gamma > 0

Then

d2Edk2=2γa2cos⁡(ka),m∗=ℏ22γa2cos⁡(ka)\frac{d^2E}{dk^2} = 2\gamma a^2\cos(ka), \qquad m^* = \frac{\hbar^2}{2\gamma a^2\cos(ka)}
   E
   ^      top of band: curve bends down
   |  ___                         ___
   | /   \  m* < 0          m*<0 /   \
   |      \                     /
   |       \ <- inflection:    /
   |        \   m* = infinite /
   |         \               /
   |          \__         __/ <- bottom: m* > 0
   |             '--___--'
   +---|---------|---------|-------> k
     -pi/a       0       +pi/a
  • Near the bottom of the band (k≈0k \approx 0): cos⁡ka≈1\cos ka \approx 1, the curve is concave up, d2E/dk2>0d^2E/dk^2 > 0, so m∗m^* is positive. Here E≈Emin+ℏ2k2/2m∗E \approx E_{min} + \hbar^2k^2/2m^*, like a free electron.
  • Near the top of the band (k≈±π/ak \approx \pm\pi/a): cos⁡ka≈−1\cos ka \approx -1, the curve is concave down, d2E/dk2<0d^2E/dk^2 < 0, so m∗m^* is negative. An applied force makes the electron accelerate opposite to the force, because it is being Bragg-reflected by the lattice.
  • At the inflection points (k=±π/2ak = \pm\pi/2a): d2E/dk2=0d^2E/dk^2 = 0, so m∗→∞m^* \to \infty; the electron does not accelerate at all.

Significance

An electron with negative mass and negative charge near the top of the valence band behaves like a particle with positive mass and positive charge. This is the idea of the hole, used to describe conduction in the valence band of semiconductors.

  • Asked 3 times
  • 2082 Kartik (new course) · 6 marks
  • 2081 Bhadra · 6 marks
  • 2069 Chaitra · 6 marks

Explain the formation of H₂ molecule using molecular orbital bonding theory and draw the necessary diagrams.

Answer

According to molecular orbital (MO) theory, when two atoms come close, their atomic orbitals combine (Linear Combination of Atomic Orbitals, LCAO) to form molecular orbitals that belong to the whole molecule. The H₂ molecule forms because its two electrons can occupy a bonding orbital of lower energy than the separate 1s orbitals.

Molecular orbitals of H₂

Let ψ1s(rA)\psi_{1s}(r_A) and ψ1s(rB)\psi_{1s}(r_B) be the 1s orbitals of atoms A and B. They combine in two ways:

ψσ=ψ1s(rA)+ψ1s(rB)(bonding)\psi_\sigma = \psi_{1s}(r_A) + \psi_{1s}(r_B) \qquad \text{(bonding)} ψσ∗=ψ1s(rA)−ψ1s(rB)(antibonding)\psi_{\sigma^*} = \psi_{1s}(r_A) - \psi_{1s}(r_B) \qquad \text{(antibonding)}
 bonding  psi_s              antibonding psi_s*
      .--.   .--.               .--.
     /    \_/    \             /    \
    /      ^      \     ------/------\------- 0
   A  (overlap)    B          A       \    /B
                                       '--'
 |psi_s|^2 high between A,B   |psi_s*|^2 = 0 at mid-point
  • In ψσ\psi_\sigma the waves add between the nuclei, so electron density builds up there. This negative charge attracts both protons and holds them together. Energy is lowered.
  • In ψσ∗\psi_{\sigma^*} the waves cancel at the mid-point (a node), there is little charge between the nuclei, and the protons repel. Energy is raised.

Energy level diagram

 Energy
   |              sigma* (empty)
   |             /  ____  \
   |  1s  __ ---          --- __  1s
   |  (H_A) ^ \            / ^ (H_B)
   |           \  _^v_  /
   |              sigma (2 electrons,
   |                     opposite spins)

The two electrons (one from each H atom) go into σ\sigma with opposite spins (Pauli principle). The antibonding orbital stays empty.

Energy versus separation

 E
 ^  \
 |   \  sigma* (repulsive, no minimum)
 |    \___
 |        ''----.....______________
0+-------------------------------------> R
 |    \              ____...----
 |     \        _---'   sigma (bonding)
 |      \    _-'
 |       '--'  <- minimum: R0 = 0.074 nm
 |              binding energy = 4.5 eV

The bonding curve has a minimum at R0=0.074R_0 = 0.074 nm. At this separation the H₂ molecule is about 4.5 eV lower in energy than two separate H atoms, so H₂ is stable. Bond order =12(2−0)=1= \frac{1}{2}(2 - 0) = 1, a single covalent bond.

  • Asked 3 times
  • 2081 Baisakh · 8 marks
  • 2073 Shrawan · 8 marks
  • 2068 Baisakh · 6 marks

What do you understand by number of states and density of states in quantum mechanics? Derive appropriate expressions for them.

Answer

  • The number of states S(E)S(E) is the total number of allowed electron states (including spin) with energy from 0 up to EE (usually per unit volume).
  • The density of states g(E)g(E) is the number of states per unit energy per unit volume at energy EE: g(E)=dSv/dEg(E) = dS_v/dE. So g(E) dEg(E)\,dE is the number of states between EE and E+dEE + dE per unit volume.

Electron in a three-dimensional box

Treat the free electrons of a metal as particles in a cubic box of side LL (infinite well in 3D). The energies are

E=h28mL2(n12+n22+n32),n1,n2,n3=1,2,3,…E = \frac{h^2}{8mL^2}\left(n_1^2 + n_2^2 + n_3^2\right), \qquad n_1, n_2, n_3 = 1, 2, 3, \ldots

Each set (n1,n2,n3)(n_1, n_2, n_3) is one orbital state, i.e. one point in "n-space" with unit volume per point. Define

n2=n12+n22+n32=8mL2Eh2n^2 = n_1^2 + n_2^2 + n_3^2 = \frac{8mL^2E}{h^2}

All states with energy ≤E\le E lie inside a sphere of radius nn. Since n1,n2,n3n_1, n_2, n_3 are positive, only one octant (1/8) of the sphere counts.

   n2
   ^
   | . . . .
   | . . . . .    one octant of a sphere
   | . . . . . .  of radius n; each dot
   | . . . . . .  = one orbital state
   +--------------> n1

Number of states

Each orbital state holds 2 electrons (spin), so

S(E)=2×18×43πn3=π3n3=π3(8mL2Eh2)3/2\begin{aligned} S(E) &= 2\times\frac{1}{8}\times\frac{4}{3}\pi n^3 = \frac{\pi}{3}n^3 \\ &= \frac{\pi}{3}\left(\frac{8mL^2E}{h^2}\right)^{3/2} \end{aligned}

Dividing by the volume L3L^3:

Sv(E)=π3(8mh2)3/2E3/2S_v(E) = \frac{\pi}{3}\left(\frac{8m}{h^2}\right)^{3/2}E^{3/2}

Density of states

g(E)=dSvdE=π3(8mh2)3/2⋅32E1/2=π2(8mh2)3/2E1/2=82 π m3/2h3E1/2\begin{aligned} g(E) &= \frac{dS_v}{dE} = \frac{\pi}{3}\left(\frac{8m}{h^2}\right)^{3/2}\cdot\frac{3}{2}E^{1/2} \\ &= \frac{\pi}{2}\left(\frac{8m}{h^2}\right)^{3/2}E^{1/2} = \frac{8\sqrt{2}\,\pi\,m^{3/2}}{h^3}E^{1/2} \end{aligned}

So g(E)∝Eg(E) \propto \sqrt{E}.

 g(E)
  ^                 __..--
  |           _.--''
  |       _.-'      g(E) ~ sqrt(E)
  |    .-'
  |  /
  | /
  +-------------------------> E

Use

Multiplying g(E)g(E) by the Fermi–Dirac function f(E)f(E) gives the number of electrons per unit energy, nE=g(E)f(E)n_E = g(E)f(E). Integrating up to EFE_F at 0 K gives the Fermi energy EF=h28m(3nπ)2/3E_F = \frac{h^2}{8m}\left(\frac{3n}{\pi}\right)^{2/3}.

  • Asked 3 times
  • 2078 Kartik · 4 marks
  • 2075 Asoj · 1+3 marks
  • 2071 Chaitra · 1+3 marks

What is effective mass? Show that the effective mass is same as mass of electron in vacuum.

Answer

Effective mass m∗m^* is the apparent mass of an electron in a crystal when it is accelerated by an external force; it includes the effect of the lattice's internal forces. It is defined as

m∗=ℏ2d2E/dk2m^* = \frac{\hbar^2}{d^2E/dk^2}

Free electron

For an electron moving freely in vacuum (or a "free" electron with V=0V = 0), all its energy is kinetic:

E=12mev2=p22meE = \frac{1}{2}m_ev^2 = \frac{p^2}{2m_e}

By de Broglie, p=ℏkp = \hbar k, so

E=ℏ2k22meE = \frac{\hbar^2k^2}{2m_e}

This is a parabola in the E–k diagram. Differentiating twice:

dEdk=ℏ2kme,d2Edk2=ℏ2me\frac{dE}{dk} = \frac{\hbar^2k}{m_e}, \qquad \frac{d^2E}{dk^2} = \frac{\hbar^2}{m_e}

Substituting in the definition:

m∗=ℏ2ℏ2/me=mem^* = \frac{\hbar^2}{\hbar^2/m_e} = m_e

Hence, for a free electron the effective mass equals the ordinary mass of the electron in vacuum, me=9.1×10−31m_e = 9.1\times10^{-31} kg. This is expected: with no lattice there are no internal forces, so the only force is the external one and Newton's law F=meaF = m_ea holds directly. In a real crystal the E–k curve is not exactly parabolic, so m∗m^* differs from mem_e (e.g. 1.08 me1.08\,m_e for electrons in Si).

  • Asked 3 times
  • 2070 Asar · 4 marks
  • 2069 Asar · 4 marks
  • 2068 Shrawan · 8 marks

For an electron confined to an infinite potential well of width 0.1 nm, determine the uncertainty in momentum and kinetic energy.

Answer

The Heisenberg uncertainty principle says that position and momentum cannot both be known exactly. In the form used in Kasap's textbook,

Δx Δpx≥ℏ\Delta x\,\Delta p_x \ge \hbar

For an electron confined in a well of width LL, its position is uncertain by at most the width of the well, so take Δx=L\Delta x = L.

Given: L=0.1 nm=1×10−10L = 0.1\ \text{nm} = 1\times10^{-10} m, ℏ=1.055×10−34\hbar = 1.055\times10^{-34} J s, m=9.1×10−31m = 9.1\times10^{-31} kg.

Uncertainty in momentum

Δpx≈ℏΔx=1.055×10−341×10−10=1.055×10−24 kg m s−1\begin{aligned} \Delta p_x &\approx \frac{\hbar}{\Delta x} = \frac{1.055\times10^{-34}}{1\times10^{-10}} \\ &= 1.055\times10^{-24}\ \text{kg m s}^{-1} \end{aligned}

Kinetic energy

The momentum of the electron must be at least of the order of its uncertainty, so the corresponding kinetic energy is

KE≈(Δpx)22m=(1.055×10−24)22×9.1×10−31=6.11×10−19 J=6.11×10−191.6×10−19=3.82 eV\begin{aligned} KE &\approx \frac{(\Delta p_x)^2}{2m} = \frac{(1.055\times10^{-24})^2}{2\times9.1\times10^{-31}} \\ &= 6.11\times10^{-19}\ \text{J} = \frac{6.11\times10^{-19}}{1.6\times10^{-19}} = 3.82\ \text{eV} \end{aligned}

Comment

  • A confined electron can never be at rest: confining it to 0.1 nm (about the size of an atom) forces it to have a kinetic energy of a few eV. This is why electrons in atoms have energies in the eV range.
  • This is an order-of-magnitude estimate. With the stricter form Δx Δp≥ℏ/2\Delta x\,\Delta p \ge \hbar/2, the values are half and one quarter: Δp=5.27×10−25\Delta p = 5.27\times10^{-25} kg m/s and KE≈0.95KE \approx 0.95 eV. The exact ground-state energy of a 0.1 nm infinite well is h2/8mL2=37.7h^2/8mL^2 = 37.7 eV.

Answer: Δp≈1.06×10−24\Delta p \approx 1.06\times10^{-24} kg m s⁻¹, KE≈6.11×10−19KE \approx 6.11\times10^{-19} J ≈3.8\approx 3.8 eV.

  • Asked 2 times
  • 2080 Bhadra · 2+6 marks
  • 2072 Chaitra · 6 marks

What is bonding and anti-bonding molecular orbitals? The formation of H₃ molecule is not stable, justify on the basis of molecular orbital bonding theory.

Answer

Bonding and antibonding molecular orbitals

When two atomic orbitals ψA\psi_A and ψB\psi_B overlap, they combine (LCAO) into two molecular orbitals:

PointBonding orbital (σ\sigma)Antibonding orbital (σ∗\sigma^*)
CombinationψA+ψB\psi_A + \psi_B (in phase)ψA−ψB\psi_A - \psi_B (out of phase)
Charge between nucleiLarge (waves add)Zero at mid-point (node)
EnergyLower than atomic levelHigher than atomic level
EffectHolds atoms togetherPushes atoms apart

Each molecular orbital can hold at most two electrons, with opposite spins (Pauli exclusion principle).

Why H₃ is not stable

H₂: Each H atom has one 1s electron. The two 1s orbitals form σ\sigma and σ∗\sigma^*. Both electrons go into the bonding orbital σ\sigma with opposite spins, and σ∗\sigma^* stays empty. The energy falls by about 4.5 eV, so H₂ is stable.

Adding a third H atom: The third electron cannot enter σ\sigma, because σ\sigma is already full with two electrons of opposite spin (Pauli principle). It must go into the higher-energy antibonding orbital σ∗\sigma^*.

 Energy
   |          sigma*  _^_   <- 3rd electron forced here
   |                 /    \
   |  1s  __  ---           ---  __ 1s
   |                \      /
   |          sigma  _^v_   <- full (2 electrons)
   |
   |  H2 + H:  bonding gain is cancelled by the
   |           energy cost of the sigma* electron
  • The electron in σ∗\sigma^* puts its charge outside the region between the nuclei, so it causes repulsion and raises the energy.
  • The energy gained from the bonding pair is largely cancelled by the energy cost of the antibonding electron, so the total energy of H₃ is not lower than that of H₂ + H.
  • A system always goes to the state of lowest energy, so H₃ breaks up into a stable H₂ molecule and a free H atom.

(In a full three-orbital treatment of linear H₃, the third electron goes into a non-bonding/antibonding level above the bonding one, and the result is the same: H₃ has no energy minimum and is not a stable molecule.)

Same idea for He₂

He has two 1s electrons, so He₂ would have 2 electrons in σ\sigma and 2 in σ∗\sigma^*. Bond order =12(2−2)=0= \frac{1}{2}(2 - 2) = 0, so He₂ does not form. In general, a molecule is stable only if bonding electrons outnumber antibonding electrons enough to lower the total energy.

  • Asked 2 times
  • 2078 Kartik · 4 marks
  • 2074 Asoj · 8 marks

Explain the importance of quantum mechanics. Differentiate between classical and quantum mechanics with suitable examples.

Answer

Quantum mechanics is the branch of physics that describes the behaviour of very small particles such as electrons, atoms and photons, using wave functions and probabilities instead of exact paths.

Importance of quantum mechanics

Classical mechanics works for large objects but fails at atomic scale. It could not explain:

  • black-body radiation, the photoelectric effect and the Compton effect;
  • the stability of atoms and their sharp spectral lines;
  • the specific heat and electrical conductivity of metals.

Quantum mechanics explains all of these. For electrical engineering materials it is essential because it explains:

  • energy bands and why some solids are conductors, others semiconductors or insulators;
  • effective mass, holes and carrier concentration in semiconductors;
  • tunneling, used in tunnel diodes, flash memory and the STM;
  • the operation of lasers, LEDs, solar cells, transistors and superconductors.

Classical versus quantum mechanics

PointClassical mechanicsQuantum mechanics
Applies toLarge (macroscopic) bodiesAtomic and sub-atomic particles
Basic lawNewton's laws, F=maF = maSchrödinger equation
State described byExact position and momentumWave function ψ\psi
PredictionDeterministic (exact)Probabilistic, $
EnergyContinuousQuantized for bound particles
Position and momentumBoth known exactly togetherLimited by Δx Δp≥ℏ\Delta x\,\Delta p \ge \hbar
Particle vs waveParticles and waves are separateWave–particle duality
BarriersParticle with E<V0E < V_0 is always reflectedParticle can tunnel through

Examples

  • Ball in a box vs electron in a well: a ball in a box can have any speed, even zero. An electron in a 0.1 nm well can only have En=n2(37.7 eV)E_n = n^2(37.7\text{ eV}) and can never be at rest.
  • Barrier: a car that cannot climb a hill never appears on the other side, but an electron with 7 eV can pass through a 10 eV, 3 nm oxide layer between copper wires with a small probability.
  • Wavelength: a 50 g golf ball at 20 m/s has λ=6.6×10−34\lambda = 6.6\times10^{-34} m, far too small to observe, so classical mechanics is enough; an electron accelerated through 100 V has λ=0.123\lambda = 0.123 nm, comparable to atomic spacing, so its wave nature (electron diffraction) is clearly seen.

Classical mechanics is a limiting case of quantum mechanics for large masses and large quantum numbers (correspondence principle).

  • Asked 2 times
  • 2076 Chaitra · 4 marks
  • 2070 Chaitra · 4 marks

Calculate the lattice constant, face diagonal, body diagonal and packing density of body centered cubic (BCC) crystal unit cell.

Answer

In a body centred cubic (BCC) unit cell there is an atom at each of the 8 corners and one atom at the centre of the cube. The atoms touch each other along the body diagonal.

        o-----------o
       /|          /|
      / |         / |      o = corner atom
     o-----------o  |      @ = body-centre atom
     |  |   @    |  |
     |  o--------|--o      atoms touch along
     | /         | /       the body diagonal
     |/          |/
     o-----------o

Let RR = atomic radius and aa = lattice constant (edge of the cube).

Lattice constant

Along the body diagonal there is one corner atom radius, one full centre atom diameter and another corner radius:

Body diagonal=3 a=R+2R+R=4Ra=4R3=2.309 R\begin{aligned} \text{Body diagonal} &= \sqrt{3}\,a = R + 2R + R = 4R \\ a &= \frac{4R}{\sqrt{3}} = 2.309\,R \end{aligned}

Face diagonal

Face diagonal=2 a=2×4R3=423 R=3.266 R\text{Face diagonal} = \sqrt{2}\,a = \sqrt{2}\times\frac{4R}{\sqrt{3}} = 4\sqrt{\frac{2}{3}}\,R = 3.266\,R

Body diagonal

Body diagonal=3 a=4R\text{Body diagonal} = \sqrt{3}\,a = 4R

Packing density

Number of atoms per cell: 8×18+1=28\times\frac{1}{8} + 1 = 2.

APF=volume of atoms in cellvolume of cell=2×43πR3a3=83πR3(4R3)3=83πR3⋅3364R3=3 π8=0.68\begin{aligned} \text{APF} &= \frac{\text{volume of atoms in cell}}{\text{volume of cell}} = \frac{2\times\frac{4}{3}\pi R^3}{a^3} \\ &= \frac{\frac{8}{3}\pi R^3}{\left(\frac{4R}{\sqrt{3}}\right)^3} = \frac{\frac{8}{3}\pi R^3\cdot3\sqrt{3}}{64R^3} = \frac{\sqrt{3}\,\pi}{8} \\ &= 0.68 \end{aligned}

Answer: a=4R/3=2.309Ra = 4R/\sqrt{3} = 2.309R; face diagonal =3.266R= 3.266R; body diagonal =4R= 4R; packing density =3π/8=0.68= \sqrt{3}\pi/8 = 0.68 (68%). Coordination number is 8. Examples: Fe (α\alpha), Cr, Na, W.

  • Asked 2 times
  • 2074 Chaitra · 6 marks
  • 2070 Asar · 4 marks

Draw face centered cubic (FCC) unit cell and find body diagonal and packing density.

Answer

In a face centred cubic (FCC) unit cell there is an atom at each of the 8 corners and one at the centre of each of the 6 faces. The atoms touch along the face diagonal.

         o------------o
        /|    x      /|
       / |          / |     o = corner atom
      o------------o  |     x = face-centre atom
      |  |  x      |x |
      |x |    x    |  |     atoms touch along
      |  o---------|--o     each face diagonal
      | /    x     | /
      |/           |/
      o------------o

  One face:   o-------o
              | \   / |    face diagonal
              |   x   |    = R + 2R + R = 4R
              | /   \ |
              o-------o

Let RR = atomic radius, aa = lattice constant.

Lattice constant

Along a face diagonal: corner radius + face atom diameter + corner radius.

2 a=4R⇒a=4R2=22 R=2.828 R\sqrt{2}\,a = 4R \quad\Rightarrow\quad a = \frac{4R}{\sqrt{2}} = 2\sqrt{2}\,R = 2.828\,R

Body diagonal

Body diagonal=3 a=3×22 R=26 R=4.899 R\begin{aligned} \text{Body diagonal} &= \sqrt{3}\,a = \sqrt{3}\times2\sqrt{2}\,R \\ &= 2\sqrt{6}\,R = 4.899\,R \end{aligned}

Number of atoms per cell

N=8×18+6×12=1+3=4N = 8\times\frac{1}{8} + 6\times\frac{1}{2} = 1 + 3 = 4

Packing density

APF=N×43πR3a3=4×43πR3(22R)3=163πR3162 R3=π32=0.74\begin{aligned} \text{APF} &= \frac{N\times\frac{4}{3}\pi R^3}{a^3} = \frac{4\times\frac{4}{3}\pi R^3}{(2\sqrt{2}R)^3} \\ &= \frac{\frac{16}{3}\pi R^3}{16\sqrt{2}\,R^3} = \frac{\pi}{3\sqrt{2}} = 0.74 \end{aligned}

Answer: body diagonal =26 R=4.90R= 2\sqrt{6}\,R = 4.90R (with a=22Ra = 2\sqrt{2}R), packing density =π/(32)=0.74= \pi/(3\sqrt{2}) = 0.74 (74%). FCC is a close-packed structure with coordination number 12. Examples: Cu, Al, Ag, Au, Ni.

  • Asked 2 times
  • 2082 Kartik (new course) · 3 marks
  • 2074 Asoj · 4 marks

In the photoelectric experiment, green light, with a wavelength of 522 nm is the longest wavelength radiation that can cause photoemission of electron from a clean sodium surface. Calculate the work function of sodium. If ultraviolet radiation with a wavelength 250 nm is incident to the sodium surface, what will be the kinetic energy of the photo-emitted electrons?

Answer

In the photoelectric effect, a photon of energy hf=hc/λhf = hc/\lambda frees an electron only if hf≥ϕhf \ge \phi (work function). Einstein's equation is KEmax=hf−ϕKE_{max} = hf - \phi. The longest wavelength that can cause emission is the threshold wavelength λ0\lambda_0, for which KE=0KE = 0.

Given: λ0=522\lambda_0 = 522 nm, λ=250\lambda = 250 nm, h=6.626×10−34h = 6.626\times10^{-34} J s, c=3×108c = 3\times10^{8} m/s, 1 eV=1.6×10−191\text{ eV} = 1.6\times10^{-19} J.

Work function of sodium

ϕ=hcλ0=6.626×10−34×3×108522×10−9=3.808×10−19 J=3.808×10−191.6×10−19=2.38 eV\begin{aligned} \phi &= \frac{hc}{\lambda_0} = \frac{6.626\times10^{-34}\times3\times10^{8}}{522\times10^{-9}} \\ &= 3.808\times10^{-19}\ \text{J} = \frac{3.808\times10^{-19}}{1.6\times10^{-19}} = 2.38\ \text{eV} \end{aligned}

Energy of the UV photon

E=hcλ=6.626×10−34×3×108250×10−9=7.951×10−19 J=4.97 eV\begin{aligned} E &= \frac{hc}{\lambda} = \frac{6.626\times10^{-34}\times3\times10^{8}}{250\times10^{-9}} \\ &= 7.951\times10^{-19}\ \text{J} = 4.97\ \text{eV} \end{aligned}

Kinetic energy of photoelectrons

KEmax=E−ϕ=4.97−2.38=2.59 eV=4.14×10−19 J\begin{aligned} KE_{max} &= E - \phi = 4.97 - 2.38 = 2.59\ \text{eV} \\ &= 4.14\times10^{-19}\ \text{J} \end{aligned}

Answer: work function of sodium ϕ=3.81×10−19\phi = 3.81\times10^{-19} J =2.38= 2.38 eV; maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons with 250 nm UV =4.14×10−19= 4.14\times10^{-19} J =2.59= 2.59 eV.

  • 2081 Baisakh · 4 marks

What do you mean by quantum mechanics? Evaluate the wavelength of 50 gram golf ball travelling at a velocity of 20 ms⁻¹.

Answer

Quantum mechanics is the theory that describes the behaviour of very small particles (electrons, atoms, photons). In it, a particle is described by a wave function ψ\psi, its energy is quantized when it is bound, and only probabilities of position and momentum can be predicted. A key idea is wave–particle duality: every moving particle has a de Broglie wavelength

λ=hp=hmv\lambda = \frac{h}{p} = \frac{h}{mv}

Wavelength of the golf ball

Given: m=50 g=0.05m = 50\ \text{g} = 0.05 kg, v=20v = 20 m/s, h=6.626×10−34h = 6.626\times10^{-34} J s.

p=mv=0.05×20=1 kg m s−1λ=hmv=6.626×10−341=6.626×10−34 m\begin{aligned} p &= mv = 0.05\times20 = 1\ \text{kg m s}^{-1} \\ \lambda &= \frac{h}{mv} = \frac{6.626\times10^{-34}}{1} = 6.626\times10^{-34}\ \text{m} \end{aligned}

Answer: λ=6.63×10−34\lambda = 6.63\times10^{-34} m.

Meaning

This wavelength is more than 101810^{18} times smaller than the size of a proton (∼10−15\sim10^{-15} m). No slit or crystal is small enough to show diffraction of the golf ball, so its wave nature can never be observed and classical mechanics describes it perfectly. For comparison, an electron accelerated through 100 V has λ≈0.123\lambda \approx 0.123 nm, similar to the spacing between atoms, so electrons show clear diffraction and must be treated by quantum mechanics.

  • 2081 Baisakh · 2+2+2+2 marks

Copper has FCC structure unit cell, atomic mass = 63.55 gm/mol and radius (R) = 0.13nm. Calculate (i) Packing density (ii) Density of copper (iii) Atomic concentration (iv) Fermi energy

Answer

Copper has an FCC unit cell: 4 atoms per cell, atoms touching along the face diagonal, so 2a=4R\sqrt{2}a = 4R.

Given: R=0.13R = 0.13 nm, M=63.55M = 63.55 g/mol =63.55×10−3= 63.55\times10^{-3} kg/mol, NA=6.022×1023N_A = 6.022\times10^{23} mol⁻¹, h=6.626×10−34h = 6.626\times10^{-34} J s, me=9.1×10−31m_e = 9.1\times10^{-31} kg. Copper is monovalent (one free electron per atom).

Lattice constant:

a=22 R=22×0.13=0.3677 nm=3.677×10−10 ma = 2\sqrt{2}\,R = 2\sqrt{2}\times0.13 = 0.3677\ \text{nm} = 3.677\times10^{-10}\ \text{m} a3=4.971×10−29 m3a^3 = 4.971\times10^{-29}\ \text{m}^3

(i) Packing density

APF=4×43πR3a3=4×43πR3(22R)3=π32=0.74\text{APF} = \frac{4\times\frac{4}{3}\pi R^3}{a^3} = \frac{4\times\frac{4}{3}\pi R^3}{(2\sqrt{2}R)^3} = \frac{\pi}{3\sqrt{2}} = 0.74

(ii) Density of copper

ρ=NMNAa3=4×63.55×10−36.022×1023×4.971×10−29=8.49×103 kg m−3=8.49 g cm−3\begin{aligned} \rho &= \frac{N M}{N_A a^3} = \frac{4\times63.55\times10^{-3}}{6.022\times10^{23}\times4.971\times10^{-29}} \\ &= 8.49\times10^{3}\ \text{kg m}^{-3} = 8.49\ \text{g cm}^{-3} \end{aligned}

(iii) Atomic concentration

nat=Na3=44.971×10−29=8.05×1028 m−3n_{at} = \frac{N}{a^3} = \frac{4}{4.971\times10^{-29}} = 8.05\times10^{28}\ \text{m}^{-3}

(iv) Fermi energy

With one conduction electron per atom, electron concentration n=nat=8.05×1028n = n_{at} = 8.05\times10^{28} m⁻³. At 0 K,

EF=h28me(3nπ)2/3=(6.626×10−34)28×9.1×10−31(3×8.05×1028π)2/3=6.03×10−38×1.807×1019=1.09×10−18 J=1.09×10−181.6×10−19=6.81 eV\begin{aligned} E_F &= \frac{h^2}{8m_e}\left(\frac{3n}{\pi}\right)^{2/3} \\ &= \frac{(6.626\times10^{-34})^2}{8\times9.1\times10^{-31}}\left(\frac{3\times8.05\times10^{28}}{\pi}\right)^{2/3} \\ &= 6.03\times10^{-38}\times1.807\times10^{19} = 1.09\times10^{-18}\ \text{J} \\ &= \frac{1.09\times10^{-18}}{1.6\times10^{-19}} = 6.81\ \text{eV} \end{aligned}

Answer: (i) APF =0.74= 0.74; (ii) ρ=8.49×103\rho = 8.49\times10^3 kg m⁻³ (8.49 g cm⁻³); (iii) nat=8.05×1028n_{at} = 8.05\times10^{28} m⁻³; (iv) EF=1.09×10−18E_F = 1.09\times10^{-18} J =6.81= 6.81 eV.

(With the more accurate R=0.128R = 0.128 nm these become 8.89 g cm⁻³, 8.43×10288.43\times10^{28} m⁻³ and 7.0 eV, close to measured values.)

  • 2080 Bhadra · 4 marks

Estimate the probability of transmission that a ball weighing 0.5 g released at a height of 5 m at rest will reach a barrier height of 8 m with barrier width of 1.5 m.

Answer

A particle of energy EE meeting a barrier of height V0>EV_0 > E and width aa can tunnel through with probability

T≈T0 e−2αa,α=2m(V0−E)ℏ,T0=16EV0(1−EV0)T \approx T_0\,e^{-2\alpha a}, \qquad \alpha = \frac{\sqrt{2m(V_0 - E)}}{\hbar}, \qquad T_0 = 16\frac{E}{V_0}\left(1 - \frac{E}{V_0}\right)

Given: m=0.5 g=5×10−4m = 0.5\ \text{g} = 5\times10^{-4} kg, release height 5 m, barrier height 8 m, width a=1.5a = 1.5 m, g=9.81g = 9.81 m/s², ℏ=1.055×10−34\hbar = 1.055\times10^{-34} J s.

Energies

The ball released from rest at 5 m has total energy (its kinetic energy at ground level):

E=mgh1=5×10−4×9.81×5=0.02453 JE = mgh_1 = 5\times10^{-4}\times9.81\times5 = 0.02453\ \text{J}

To climb an 8 m barrier it would need

V0=mgh2=5×10−4×9.81×8=0.03924 JV_0 = mgh_2 = 5\times10^{-4}\times9.81\times8 = 0.03924\ \text{J} V0−E=0.01472 JV_0 - E = 0.01472\ \text{J}

Classically, E<V0E < V_0, so the ball can never cross.

Decay constant

α=2×5×10−4×0.014721.055×10−34=3.836×10−31.055×10−34=3.64×1031 m−1\begin{aligned} \alpha &= \frac{\sqrt{2\times5\times10^{-4}\times0.01472}}{1.055\times10^{-34}} = \frac{3.836\times10^{-3}}{1.055\times10^{-34}} \\ &= 3.64\times10^{31}\ \text{m}^{-1} \end{aligned} 2αa=2×3.64×1031×1.5=1.09×10322\alpha a = 2\times3.64\times10^{31}\times1.5 = 1.09\times10^{32}

Transmission probability

T0=16×0.024530.03924(1−0.024530.03924)=16×0.625×0.375=3.75T_0 = 16\times\frac{0.02453}{0.03924}\left(1 - \frac{0.02453}{0.03924}\right) = 16\times0.625\times0.375 = 3.75 T≈3.75 e−1.09×1032≈10−4.74×1031≈0\begin{aligned} T &\approx 3.75\,e^{-1.09\times10^{32}} \\ &\approx 10^{-4.74\times10^{31}} \approx 0 \end{aligned}

Answer: T≈e−1.09×1032≈10−4.7×1031T \approx e^{-1.09\times10^{32}} \approx 10^{-4.7\times10^{31}}, which is zero for all practical purposes.

The ball will never be seen tunneling through the barrier, because its mass is huge compared with an electron and the barrier is very wide. Tunneling matters only for very light particles and barriers of nanometre width.

  • 2080 Baisakh · 4 marks

Evaluate the probability that an energy state 3KT above the Fermi level will be occupied by an electron.

Answer

The probability that a state of energy EE is occupied by an electron is given by the Fermi–Dirac distribution function:

f(E)=11+exp⁡(E−EFkT)f(E) = \frac{1}{1 + \exp\left(\dfrac{E - E_F}{kT}\right)}

Given: the state is 3kT3kT above the Fermi level, so E−EF=3kTE - E_F = 3kT.

f(E)=11+e3kT/kT=11+e3=11+20.09=121.09=0.0474\begin{aligned} f(E) &= \frac{1}{1 + e^{3kT/kT}} = \frac{1}{1 + e^{3}} \\ &= \frac{1}{1 + 20.09} = \frac{1}{21.09} = 0.0474 \end{aligned}

Answer: f(E)=0.0474f(E) = 0.0474, i.e. about 4.74 %.

The result does not depend on temperature, because the energy is given in units of kTkT. A state only 3kT3kT above EFE_F (about 0.078 eV at 300 K) is already rarely occupied; the probability that it is empty is 1−0.0474=0.95261 - 0.0474 = 0.9526.

  • 2080 Baisakh · 8 marks

What do you understand by infinite effective mass? Derive the expression for effective mass of electron and show that it can be positive as well as negative, explain with the help of E-k diagram.

Answer

Effective mass m∗=ℏ2/(d2E/dk2)m^* = \hbar^2/(d^2E/dk^2) is the mass an electron in a crystal appears to have under an external force. Infinite effective mass means d2E/dk2=0d^2E/dk^2 = 0 (the inflection point of the E–k curve): there the external force produces no acceleration at all, because the force from the lattice exactly balances it.

Derivation of m∗m^*

The electron is a wave packet moving with group velocity (E=ℏωE = \hbar\omega):

vg=dωdk=1ℏdEdkv_g = \frac{d\omega}{dk} = \frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{dE}{dk}

An external force FF acting for time dtdt does work dE=Fvg dtdE = F v_g\,dt:

dEdkdk=F⋅1ℏdEdkdt⇒F=ℏdkdt\frac{dE}{dk}dk = F\cdot\frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{dE}{dk}dt \quad\Rightarrow\quad F = \hbar\frac{dk}{dt}

Acceleration:

a=dvgdt=1ℏd2Edk2dkdt=1ℏ2d2Edk2F\begin{aligned} a &= \frac{dv_g}{dt} = \frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{d^2E}{dk^2}\frac{dk}{dt} = \frac{1}{\hbar^2}\frac{d^2E}{dk^2}F \end{aligned}

Comparing with F=m∗aF = m^*a:

m∗=ℏ2d2E/dk2m^* = \frac{\hbar^2}{d^2E/dk^2}

Positive, negative and infinite m∗m^* from the E–k diagram

In a crystal the band has a cosine-like shape. Taking E=E0−2γcos⁡kaE = E_0 - 2\gamma\cos ka,

dEdk=2γasin⁡ka,d2Edk2=2γa2cos⁡ka\frac{dE}{dk} = 2\gamma a\sin ka, \qquad \frac{d^2E}{dk^2} = 2\gamma a^2\cos ka
   E                  (a) E vs k
   ^  __                              __
   |    \  m*<0                m*<0  /
   |     \                          /
   |      * <- inflection,  ->     *
   |       \   m* = infinite      /
   |        \                    /
   |         `--.__ m*>0 __.--'
   +----|------------|------------|----> k
      -pi/a          0          +pi/a

   v_g ~ dE/dk        (b) velocity
   ^           max at +pi/2a
   |             .--.
   |           /      \
   +----------*--------*---------> k
   |  \      /  0      +pi/a
   |    '--'
  • Lower half of band (∣k∣<π/2a|k| < \pi/2a): curve concave up, d2E/dk2>0d^2E/dk^2 > 0, m∗>0m^* > 0. Velocity rises with kk; the electron accelerates in the direction of the force, like a normal particle.
  • Inflection point (∣k∣=π/2a|k| = \pi/2a): d2E/dk2=0d^2E/dk^2 = 0, m∗=∞m^* = \infty. Velocity is maximum; increasing kk does not increase vgv_g. The applied force gives zero acceleration.
  • Upper half of band (π/2a<∣k∣<π/a\pi/2a < |k| < \pi/a): curve concave down, d2E/dk2<0d^2E/dk^2 < 0, m∗<0m^* < 0. Velocity decreases as kk increases, so the electron accelerates opposite to the applied force. Physically, the electron is being Bragg-reflected by the lattice and the lattice pushes back harder than the external force.
  • At k=±π/ak = \pm\pi/a (band edge), vg=0v_g = 0: a standing wave.

Significance

  • Near the bottom of the conduction band electrons have positive m∗m^* and behave like free electrons.
  • Near the top of the valence band electrons have negative m∗m^*. An electron missing from there behaves as a hole with positive charge and positive mass, which is the basis of hole conduction in semiconductors.
  • 2078 Kartik · 8 marks

Define Degenerate state and Fermi energy. Derive an expression showing the relationship between density of states and energy.

Answer

Degenerate state

Two or more different quantum states (different sets of quantum numbers, i.e. different wave functions) that have the same energy are called degenerate states. For an electron in a cubic box of side LL,

E=h28mL2(n12+n22+n32)E = \frac{h^2}{8mL^2}(n_1^2 + n_2^2 + n_3^2)

The states (n1,n2,n3)=(1,1,2),(1,2,1),(2,1,1)(n_1, n_2, n_3) = (1,1,2), (1,2,1), (2,1,1) all have n12+n22+n32=6n_1^2 + n_2^2 + n_3^2 = 6, so they have the same energy 6h2/8mL26h^2/8mL^2. This level is three-fold degenerate. With spin, each state is also two-fold spin degenerate.

Fermi energy

The Fermi energy EFE_F is the energy of the highest occupied level in a metal at absolute zero (0 K). At 0 K all states below EFE_F are filled and all above are empty. At any temperature it is the energy at which the probability of occupation is exactly 1/2, f(EF)=1/2f(E_F) = 1/2. For copper EF≈7E_F \approx 7 eV.

Density of states versus energy

Density of states g(E)g(E) is the number of states per unit energy per unit volume at energy EE.

Let n2=n12+n22+n32=8mL2Eh2n^2 = n_1^2 + n_2^2 + n_3^2 = \dfrac{8mL^2E}{h^2}. Each state is a point with unit volume in n-space. All states with energy up to EE lie inside a sphere of radius nn, but only the positive octant is allowed (ni>0n_i > 0).

   n3
   |
   |  . . .
   |  . . . .      states with energy <= E
   |  . . . . .    fill 1/8 of a sphere
   +-----------n2  of radius n
  /
 n1

Number of orbital states =18⋅43πn3= \frac{1}{8}\cdot\frac{4}{3}\pi n^3. With 2 spin states each:

S(E)=2×18×43πn3=π3(8mL2Eh2)3/2\begin{aligned} S(E) &= 2\times\frac{1}{8}\times\frac{4}{3}\pi n^3 = \frac{\pi}{3}\left(\frac{8mL^2E}{h^2}\right)^{3/2} \end{aligned}

Per unit volume (divide by L3L^3):

Sv(E)=π3(8mh2)3/2E3/2S_v(E) = \frac{\pi}{3}\left(\frac{8m}{h^2}\right)^{3/2}E^{3/2}

Differentiating:

g(E)=dSvdE=π2(8mh2)3/2E1/2=82 π m3/2h3 E1/2\begin{aligned} g(E) &= \frac{dS_v}{dE} = \frac{\pi}{2}\left(\frac{8m}{h^2}\right)^{3/2}E^{1/2} \\ &= \frac{8\sqrt{2}\,\pi\,m^{3/2}}{h^3}\,E^{1/2} \end{aligned}

So g(E)∝Eg(E) \propto \sqrt{E}: the number of available states per unit energy increases as the square root of energy.

 g(E)
  ^                      ___..
  |                __..--
  |  filled   _.-''|
  |  at 0 K .'     |  empty
  |       /        |
  |     /          |
  +----------------+--------> E
                  E_F

Fermi energy from g(E)g(E)

At 0 K all states up to EFE_F are full, so the electron concentration is

n=∫0EFg(E) dE=π3(8mh2)3/2EF3/2⇒EF=h28m(3nπ)2/3n = \int_0^{E_F} g(E)\,dE = \frac{\pi}{3}\left(\frac{8m}{h^2}\right)^{3/2}E_F^{3/2} \quad\Rightarrow\quad E_F = \frac{h^2}{8m}\left(\frac{3n}{\pi}\right)^{2/3}
  • 2078 Kartik · 8 marks

What is linear combination of atomic orbitals (LCAO)? With the help of LCAO, justify that the "Formation of H₂ molecule is energetically stable".

Answer

Linear Combination of Atomic Orbitals (LCAO) is a method of finding molecular orbitals by adding or subtracting the atomic orbitals of the atoms that form the molecule:

ψMO=cAψA+cBψB\psi_{MO} = c_A\psi_A + c_B\psi_B

For two identical atoms cA=±cBc_A = \pm c_B, which gives two molecular orbitals, one bonding and one antibonding.

Molecular orbitals of H₂

Each H atom has one electron in a 1s orbital, ψ1s(rA)\psi_{1s}(r_A) and ψ1s(rB)\psi_{1s}(r_B). When the atoms come close, these overlap and form

ψσ=ψ1s(rA)+ψ1s(rB)(bonding)\psi_\sigma = \psi_{1s}(r_A) + \psi_{1s}(r_B) \qquad \text{(bonding)} ψσ∗=ψ1s(rA)−ψ1s(rB)(antibonding)\psi_{\sigma^*} = \psi_{1s}(r_A) - \psi_{1s}(r_B) \qquad \text{(antibonding)}
   psi_A + psi_B  (sigma)        psi_A - psi_B  (sigma*)
       .-.   .-.                    .-.
      /   \_/   \                  /   \
  ___/    ^      \___        _____/     \     ______
     A  charge    B               A      \   / B
        builds up                         '-'
        between A, B            node at mid-point
  • Bonding orbital: the two waves add between the nuclei, so ∣ψσ∣2|\psi_\sigma|^2 is large there. This shared negative charge attracts both protons, so the energy EσE_\sigma is lower than the energy of an isolated 1s electron.
  • Antibonding orbital: the waves cancel at the mid-point; there is no shared charge, the protons repel, so Eσ∗E_{\sigma^*} is higher than the 1s energy.

Filling the orbitals

H₂ has two electrons. By the Pauli principle both can go into the lowest orbital σ\sigma with opposite spins; σ∗\sigma^* remains empty.

 Energy
   |              ____  sigma*  (empty)
   |  1s  _^_   /      \   _^_  1s
   |  H_A      \        /       H_B
   |             _^v_   sigma (2 e, opposite spins)

Energy versus separation

The total energy of the molecule as a function of nuclear separation RR:

 E
 ^
 |\  sigma* : always above zero -> repulsive
 | \__
 |    ''---...________
0+-----------------------------------> R
 |  \             ___...---
 |   \       _.-''  sigma : bonding
 |    \   _-'
 |     '-'  <- minimum at R0 = 0.074 nm
 |            depth = 4.5 eV
  • At large RR the atoms do not interact, E=0E = 0 (two separate H atoms).
  • As RR decreases, electrons in σ\sigma lower the energy.
  • At very small RR the proton–proton repulsion dominates and the energy rises.
  • The minimum at R0=0.074R_0 = 0.074 nm is the bond length. The molecule's energy here is about 4.5 eV lower than that of two separate atoms (bond energy).

Conclusion

Since two H atoms in the bonding orbital have less total energy than the separated atoms, and every system moves to its lowest energy state, the formation of the H₂ molecule is energetically favourable, so H₂ is stable. Bond order =12(2−0)=1= \frac{1}{2}(2 - 0) = 1 (a single covalent bond). Energy of 4.5 eV must be supplied to break it.

  • 2078 Bhadra · 4 marks

"The effective mass of electron in Gold is 1.1 times the mass of electron". Justify.

Answer

The statement means that a conduction electron in gold responds to an applied force as if its mass were m∗=1.1 mem^* = 1.1\,m_e instead of the free-electron mass mem_e. This is correct and is explained by the effective mass concept.

Reason

A conduction electron in a metal is not truly free. Besides the external force FextF_{ext} (e.g. −eE-eE), it feels the periodic force of the positive ion cores and other electrons, FintF_{int}:

Fext+Fint=meaF_{ext} + F_{int} = m_e a

Since FintF_{int} cannot be written simply, its whole effect is put into a new mass:

Fext=m∗a,m∗=ℏ2d2E/dk2F_{ext} = m^* a, \qquad m^* = \frac{\hbar^2}{d^2E/dk^2}
  • For a perfectly free electron E=ℏ2k2/2meE = \hbar^2k^2/2m_e and m∗=mem^* = m_e.
  • In gold, the E–k curve of the conduction band near the Fermi level is slightly less curved than the free-electron parabola, because of the interaction with the lattice. Smaller d2E/dk2d^2E/dk^2 gives larger m∗m^*: here d2E/dk2=ℏ2/(1.1 me)d^2E/dk^2 = \hbar^2/(1.1\,m_e), so m∗=1.1 mem^* = 1.1\,m_e.
 E
 ^        free electron   gold band
 |        (m* = me)      (m* = 1.1 me,
 |          \   /         flatter)
 |           \ /   .  .
 |            V  .      .
 +---------------------------> k

Physical meaning

Under the same electric field, an electron in gold accelerates only 1/1.1≈0.911/1.1 \approx 0.91 times as fast as a free electron, as if it were 10 % heavier; the lattice "holds it back" slightly. The value is found from experiments such as electronic specific heat or cyclotron resonance. Since 1.1 is close to 1, the free electron model works quite well for gold (and other noble metals).

  • 2078 Bhadra · 2+6 marks

Define lattice and basis of a crystal structure. Draw the face centered cubic (FCC) unit cell and find the body diagonal and packing density.

Answer

Lattice and basis

  • Lattice: a regular, periodic array of imaginary points in space such that every point has exactly the same surroundings. It shows only the geometry of repetition.
  • Basis: the atom or group of atoms attached to each lattice point. Repeating the basis at every lattice point builds the real crystal.
Crystal structure=Lattice+Basis\text{Crystal structure} = \text{Lattice} + \text{Basis}

Example: copper = FCC lattice + basis of one Cu atom; NaCl = FCC lattice + basis of one Na⁺ and one Cl⁻ ion.

FCC unit cell

An atom sits at each of the 8 corners and at the centre of each of the 6 faces. The atoms touch along the face diagonal.

         o------------o
        /|    x      /|
       / |          / |     o = corner atom
      o------------o  |     x = face-centre atom
      |  |  x      |x |
      |x |    x    |  |
      |  o---------|--o
      | /    x     | /
      |/           |/
      o------------o

  One face:   o-------o
              | \   / |    face diagonal
              |   x   |    = R + 2R + R = 4R
              | /   \ |
              o-------o

Let RR = atomic radius, aa = lattice constant.

Along a face diagonal: 2 a=4R⇒a=22 R=2.828R\sqrt{2}\,a = 4R \Rightarrow a = 2\sqrt{2}\,R = 2.828R.

Body diagonal

Body diagonal=3 a=3×22 R=26 R=4.899R\text{Body diagonal} = \sqrt{3}\,a = \sqrt{3}\times2\sqrt{2}\,R = 2\sqrt{6}\,R = 4.899R

Packing density

Atoms per cell: N=8×18+6×12=4N = 8\times\frac{1}{8} + 6\times\frac{1}{2} = 4.

APF=N⋅43πR3a3=4×43πR3162 R3=π32=0.74\begin{aligned} \text{APF} &= \frac{N\cdot\frac{4}{3}\pi R^3}{a^3} = \frac{4\times\frac{4}{3}\pi R^3}{16\sqrt{2}\,R^3} \\ &= \frac{\pi}{3\sqrt{2}} = 0.74 \end{aligned}

Answer: body diagonal =26 R≈4.90R= 2\sqrt{6}\,R \approx 4.90R; packing density =0.74= 0.74 (74 % of the cell volume is filled). FCC is close-packed with coordination number 12; examples are Cu, Al, Ag, Au.

  • 2076 Chaitra · 4+4 marks

Explain the significance of operators in quantum mechanics. How do you calculate the expected energy value of a particle represented by ψ(x,t) confined at a boundary of 0 to L?

Answer

Significance of operators

In quantum mechanics every measurable quantity (observable) is represented by an operator, a mathematical instruction that acts on the wave function ψ\psi.

ObservableOperator
Position xxx^=x\hat{x} = x
Momentum pxp_xp^x=−jℏ∂∂x\hat{p}_x = -j\hbar\dfrac{\partial}{\partial x}
Total energy EEE^=jℏ∂∂t\hat{E} = j\hbar\dfrac{\partial}{\partial t}
Hamiltonian (KE + PE)H^=−ℏ22m∂2∂x2+V(x)\hat{H} = -\dfrac{\hbar^2}{2m}\dfrac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2} + V(x)

Why they matter:

  • They give a rule for getting physical information from ψ\psi; ψ\psi alone is not measurable.
  • Eigenvalue equation: if A^ψ=aψ\hat{A}\psi = a\psi, a measurement of AA always gives the exact value aa. The Schrödinger equation itself is H^ψ=Eψ\hat{H}\psi = E\psi, so allowed energies are eigenvalues of H^\hat{H}.
  • Expectation value: when ψ\psi is not an eigenfunction, operators give the average result of many measurements: ⟨A⟩=∫ψ∗A^ψ dx\langle A\rangle = \int\psi^*\hat{A}\psi\,dx.
  • Non-commuting operators (e.g. x^\hat{x} and p^\hat{p}) lead to the uncertainty principle.

Expected energy of a particle in a well (0 to L)

For an infinite well of width LL (V=0V = 0 inside), the normalized wave function is

ψn(x,t)=2Lsin⁡(nπxL)e−jEnt/ℏ\psi_n(x,t) = \sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}\sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right)e^{-jE_nt/\hbar}

The expected (average) energy is

⟨E⟩=∫0Lψ∗ E^ ψ dx=∫0Lψ∗(−ℏ22m∂2∂x2)ψ dx\langle E\rangle = \int_0^L \psi^*\,\hat{E}\,\psi\,dx = \int_0^L \psi^*\left(-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}\right)\psi\,dx

Using ∂2ψ∂x2=−(nπL)2ψ\dfrac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial x^2} = -\left(\dfrac{n\pi}{L}\right)^2\psi:

⟨E⟩=ℏ22m(nπL)2∫0Lψ∗ψ dx=ℏ22m(nπL)2⋅2L∫0Lsin⁡2nπxL dx=ℏ2n2π22mL2⋅2L⋅L2=n2h28mL2\begin{aligned} \langle E\rangle &= \frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\left(\frac{n\pi}{L}\right)^2\int_0^L\psi^*\psi\,dx \\ &= \frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\left(\frac{n\pi}{L}\right)^2\cdot\frac{2}{L}\int_0^L\sin^2\frac{n\pi x}{L}\,dx \\ &= \frac{\hbar^2n^2\pi^2}{2mL^2}\cdot\frac{2}{L}\cdot\frac{L}{2} = \frac{n^2h^2}{8mL^2} \end{aligned}

(The same result follows from E^=jℏ ∂/∂t\hat{E} = j\hbar\,\partial/\partial t, since jℏ ∂ψ/∂t=Enψj\hbar\,\partial\psi/\partial t = E_n\psi.)

Result: ⟨E⟩=n2h28mL2\langle E\rangle = \dfrac{n^2h^2}{8mL^2}. Because ψn\psi_n is an eigenfunction of the energy operator, every measurement gives this same value; there is no spread in energy.

  • 2076 Asoj · 4 marks

X-rays of wavelength 0.9 Å fall on a metal plate having work function of 2 eV. Find the wavelength associated with emitted photoelectrons.

Answer

The X-ray photon gives its energy to an electron; the electron leaves the metal with kinetic energy KE=hc/λ−ϕKE = hc/\lambda - \phi (Einstein's equation). Its de Broglie wavelength is then λe=h/p=h/2m KE\lambda_e = h/p = h/\sqrt{2m\,KE}.

Given: λ=0.9 A˚=0.9×10−10\lambda = 0.9\ \text{Å} = 0.9\times10^{-10} m, ϕ=2\phi = 2 eV, h=6.626×10−34h = 6.626\times10^{-34} J s, c=3×108c = 3\times10^8 m/s, m=9.1×10−31m = 9.1\times10^{-31} kg, e=1.6×10−19e = 1.6\times10^{-19} C.

Photon energy

E=hcλ=6.626×10−34×3×1080.9×10−10=2.2087×10−15 J=13804 eV\begin{aligned} E &= \frac{hc}{\lambda} = \frac{6.626\times10^{-34}\times3\times10^{8}}{0.9\times10^{-10}} \\ &= 2.2087\times10^{-15}\ \text{J} = 13804\ \text{eV} \end{aligned}

Kinetic energy of photoelectron

KE=E−ϕ=13804−2=13802 eV=13802×1.6×10−19=2.2083×10−15 J\begin{aligned} KE &= E - \phi = 13804 - 2 = 13802\ \text{eV} \\ &= 13802\times1.6\times10^{-19} = 2.2083\times10^{-15}\ \text{J} \end{aligned}

(The work function is negligible compared with the X-ray energy.)

Momentum and wavelength

p=2m KE=2×9.1×10−31×2.2083×10−15=6.34×10−23 kg m s−1λe=hp=6.626×10−346.34×10−23=1.045×10−11 m\begin{aligned} p &= \sqrt{2m\,KE} = \sqrt{2\times9.1\times10^{-31}\times2.2083\times10^{-15}} \\ &= 6.34\times10^{-23}\ \text{kg m s}^{-1} \\ \lambda_e &= \frac{h}{p} = \frac{6.626\times10^{-34}}{6.34\times10^{-23}} = 1.045\times10^{-11}\ \text{m} \end{aligned}

Answer: wavelength of the photoelectrons λe≈1.05×10−11\lambda_e \approx 1.05\times10^{-11} m =0.105= 0.105 Å.

(KE = 13.8 keV is only about 2.7 % of the electron rest energy, 511 keV, so the non-relativistic formula is adequate.)

  • 2075 Asoj · 8 marks

Derive the time independent Schrodinger's equation, starting with classical wave equation, y = A sin 2π(ft − x/λ), where notations have their usual meanings.

Answer

The time-independent Schrödinger equation is obtained by combining the classical wave equation with de Broglie's relation λ=h/p\lambda = h/p. It describes the spatial part ψ(x)\psi(x) of a particle's wave function in a potential V(x)V(x).

Step 1: Classical wave

A wave travelling in the +x+x direction is

y=Asin⁡2π(ft−xλ)y = A\sin 2\pi\left(ft - \frac{x}{\lambda}\right)

Differentiate with respect to xx:

∂y∂x=−2πλAcos⁡2π(ft−xλ)\frac{\partial y}{\partial x} = -\frac{2\pi}{\lambda}A\cos2\pi\left(ft - \frac{x}{\lambda}\right) ∂2y∂x2=−4π2λ2Asin⁡2π(ft−xλ)=−4π2λ2 y\frac{\partial^2y}{\partial x^2} = -\frac{4\pi^2}{\lambda^2}A\sin2\pi\left(ft - \frac{x}{\lambda}\right) = -\frac{4\pi^2}{\lambda^2}\,y

So

∂2y∂x2+4π2λ2y=0(1)\frac{\partial^2y}{\partial x^2} + \frac{4\pi^2}{\lambda^2}y = 0 \qquad (1)

Step 2: Replace yy by the matter wave ψ\psi

For a particle, the wave is described by the wave function ψ\psi. Separating out the time part (ψ(x,t)=ψ(x) e−jωt\psi(x,t) = \psi(x)\,e^{-j\omega t}), the space part obeys the same equation:

d2ψdx2+4π2λ2ψ=0(2)\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + \frac{4\pi^2}{\lambda^2}\psi = 0 \qquad (2)

Step 3: Use de Broglie's relation

λ=hp\lambda = \dfrac{h}{p}, so 1λ2=p2h2\dfrac{1}{\lambda^2} = \dfrac{p^2}{h^2}.

The total energy is E=p22m+VE = \dfrac{p^2}{2m} + V, so

p2=2m(E−V)⇒1λ2=2m(E−V)h2p^2 = 2m(E - V) \quad\Rightarrow\quad \frac{1}{\lambda^2} = \frac{2m(E - V)}{h^2}

Step 4: Substitute in (2)

d2ψdx2+4π2⋅2m(E−V)h2ψ=0\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + \frac{4\pi^2\cdot2m(E - V)}{h^2}\psi = 0 d2ψdx2+8π2mh2(E−V)ψ=0\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + \frac{8\pi^2m}{h^2}(E - V)\psi = 0

Since ℏ=h/2π\hbar = h/2\pi, 8π2mh2=2mℏ2\dfrac{8\pi^2m}{h^2} = \dfrac{2m}{\hbar^2}:

d2ψdx2+2mℏ2(E−V)ψ=0\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + \frac{2m}{\hbar^2}(E - V)\psi = 0

or, in the usual form,

−ℏ22md2ψdx2+V(x)ψ=Eψ-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + V(x)\psi = E\psi

This is the time-independent Schrödinger equation in one dimension. In three dimensions d2/dx2d^2/dx^2 is replaced by ∇2\nabla^2:

∇2ψ+2mℏ2(E−V)ψ=0\nabla^2\psi + \frac{2m}{\hbar^2}(E - V)\psi = 0

Here ψ\psi is the wave function, mm the mass, EE the total energy, VV the potential energy and ℏ=h/2π\hbar = h/2\pi. It is used for problems where VV does not depend on time, such as the potential well, the barrier (tunneling) and the hydrogen atom.

  • 2075 Asoj · 4 marks

Find the probability that an energy state 5KT above the Fermi level will not occupied by an electron.

Answer

The probability that a state of energy EE is occupied is given by the Fermi–Dirac function

f(E)=11+exp⁡(E−EFkT)f(E) = \frac{1}{1 + \exp\left(\dfrac{E - E_F}{kT}\right)}

The probability that it is not occupied (empty) is 1−f(E)1 - f(E).

Given: E−EF=5kTE - E_F = 5kT.

f(E)=11+e5=11+148.41=1149.41=0.006691−f(E)=1−0.00669=0.99331\begin{aligned} f(E) &= \frac{1}{1 + e^{5}} = \frac{1}{1 + 148.41} = \frac{1}{149.41} = 0.00669 \\ 1 - f(E) &= 1 - 0.00669 = 0.99331 \end{aligned}

Equivalently, 1−f(E)=e51+e5=148.41149.41=0.99331 - f(E) = \dfrac{e^5}{1 + e^5} = \dfrac{148.41}{149.41} = 0.9933.

Answer: the probability that the state is not occupied is 0.9933 (99.33 %).

A state 5kT5kT above EFE_F (about 0.13 eV at 300 K) is almost always empty; only 0.67 % of such states hold an electron. The answer is the same at every temperature because the energy is expressed in units of kTkT.

  • 2075 Asoj · 8 marks

Draw a neat diagram of face centered cubic (FCC) unit cell crystal structure for copper and find (i) Number of atoms per unit cell (ii) Packing density (iii) Atomic concentration if radius of copper atom is 0.128 nm (iv) Density of crystal given that atomic mass of Cu is 63.55 g mol⁻¹

Answer

Copper crystallises in the face centred cubic (FCC) structure: atoms at the 8 corners and at the centres of the 6 faces, touching along the face diagonal.

         o------------o
        /|    x      /|
       / |          / |     o = corner atom
      o------------o  |     x = face-centre atom
      |  |  x      |x |
      |x |    x    |  |
      |  o---------|--o
      | /    x     | /
      |/           |/
      o------------o

  One face:   o-------o
              | \   / |    face diagonal
              |   x   |    = R + 2R + R = 4R
              | /   \ |
              o-------o

Given: R=0.128R = 0.128 nm, M=63.55M = 63.55 g/mol, NA=6.022×1023N_A = 6.022\times10^{23} mol⁻¹.

(i) Number of atoms per unit cell

  • Corner atoms: each shared by 8 cells, 8×18=18\times\frac{1}{8} = 1
  • Face atoms: each shared by 2 cells, 6×12=36\times\frac{1}{2} = 3
N=1+3=4N = 1 + 3 = 4

Lattice constant

Along the face diagonal 2 a=4R\sqrt{2}\,a = 4R:

a=22 R=22×0.128=0.3620 nm=3.620×10−10 ma3=4.745×10−29 m3\begin{aligned} a &= 2\sqrt{2}\,R = 2\sqrt{2}\times0.128 = 0.3620\ \text{nm} = 3.620\times10^{-10}\ \text{m} \\ a^3 &= 4.745\times10^{-29}\ \text{m}^3 \end{aligned}

(ii) Packing density

APF=4×43πR3(22R)3=π32=0.74\text{APF} = \frac{4\times\frac{4}{3}\pi R^3}{(2\sqrt{2}R)^3} = \frac{\pi}{3\sqrt{2}} = 0.74

(iii) Atomic concentration

nat=Na3=44.745×10−29=8.43×1028 atoms m−3n_{at} = \frac{N}{a^3} = \frac{4}{4.745\times10^{-29}} = 8.43\times10^{28}\ \text{atoms m}^{-3}

(iv) Density

ρ=NMNAa3=4×63.55×10−36.022×1023×4.745×10−29=8.90×103 kg m−3=8.90 g cm−3\begin{aligned} \rho &= \frac{N M}{N_A a^3} = \frac{4\times63.55\times10^{-3}}{6.022\times10^{23}\times4.745\times10^{-29}} \\ &= 8.90\times10^{3}\ \text{kg m}^{-3} = 8.90\ \text{g cm}^{-3} \end{aligned}

Answer: (i) 4 atoms per cell; (ii) packing density 0.74; (iii) 8.43×10288.43\times10^{28} m⁻³; (iv) ρ=8.90×103\rho = 8.90\times10^3 kg m⁻³ (close to the measured 8.96 g cm⁻³).

  • 2074 Chaitra · 4 marks

Calculate the temperature at which there is 98% probability that a state 0.3 eV below the fermi energy level will be occupied by an electron.

Answer

The occupation probability of a state is given by the Fermi–Dirac function

f(E)=11+exp⁡(E−EFkT)f(E) = \frac{1}{1 + \exp\left(\dfrac{E - E_F}{kT}\right)}

Given: f(E)=0.98f(E) = 0.98, E−EF=−0.3E - E_F = -0.3 eV (state is below EFE_F), k=8.617×10−5k = 8.617\times10^{-5} eV/K (=1.38×10−23= 1.38\times10^{-23} J/K).

Solve for T

0.98=11+e−0.3/kT1+e−0.3/kT=10.98=1.020408e−0.3/kT=0.0204080.3kT=ln⁡10.020408=ln⁡49=3.892kT=0.33.892=0.07708 eV\begin{aligned} 0.98 &= \frac{1}{1 + e^{-0.3/kT}} \\ 1 + e^{-0.3/kT} &= \frac{1}{0.98} = 1.020408 \\ e^{-0.3/kT} &= 0.020408 \\ \frac{0.3}{kT} &= \ln\frac{1}{0.020408} = \ln 49 = 3.892 \\ kT &= \frac{0.3}{3.892} = 0.07708\ \text{eV} \end{aligned} T=0.07708×1.6×10−191.38×10−23=894 KT = \frac{0.07708\times1.6\times10^{-19}}{1.38\times10^{-23}} = 894\ \text{K}

Answer: T≈894T \approx 894 K (about 621 °C).

At this temperature kT=0.077kT = 0.077 eV. Below 894 K the probability of occupation of that state is higher than 98 % (it tends to 100 % as T→0T \to 0); above 894 K it falls below 98 %, because more electrons are thermally excited above EFE_F, leaving states below EFE_F empty.

  • 2074 Asoj · 6 marks

What happen when inter-atomic separation between two helium atoms is very less? Describe on the basis of formation of bonding and antibonding molecular orbital.

Answer

When two helium atoms are brought very close, their 1s orbitals overlap, but no stable He₂ molecule forms; the atoms repel each other. Molecular orbital (LCAO) theory explains why.

Molecular orbitals formed

Each He atom has the configuration 1s21s^2 (two electrons). Overlap of the two 1s orbitals gives:

ψσ=ψ1s(A)+ψ1s(B)(bonding, lower energy)\psi_\sigma = \psi_{1s}(A) + \psi_{1s}(B) \qquad \text{(bonding, lower energy)} ψσ∗=ψ1s(A)−ψ1s(B)(antibonding, higher energy)\psi_{\sigma^*} = \psi_{1s}(A) - \psi_{1s}(B) \qquad \text{(antibonding, higher energy)}

Filling the orbitals

There are 4 electrons in total. Each MO can hold only 2 electrons with opposite spins (Pauli exclusion principle):

  • 2 electrons go into the bonding orbital σ\sigma;
  • the other 2 are forced into the antibonding orbital σ∗\sigma^*.
 Energy
   |           sigma*   _^v_   (2 e, raises E)
   |                   /    \
   |  1s  _^v_  ------        ------  _^v_  1s
   |   He(A)           \    /          He(B)
   |           sigma    _^v_   (2 e, lowers E)

Result

  • The rise in energy of the antibonding orbital is larger than the fall of the bonding orbital (the antibonding level is pushed up more than the bonding level is pulled down).
  • So with both orbitals full, the total energy of He–He is higher than that of two separate He atoms.
  • Bond order =12(Nb−Na)=12(2−2)=0= \frac{1}{2}(N_b - N_a) = \frac{1}{2}(2 - 2) = 0: no bond.
 E (He-He)
  ^
  |\
  | \     total energy: purely repulsive,
  |  \    no minimum
  |   '.
  |     '-.__
 0+-----------'--------------------> R

As the separation decreases further, the electron clouds overlap more, the antibonding electrons put charge outside the internuclear region, and the nuclei repel strongly. Hence the two He atoms push each other apart.

Conclusion

Helium does not form He₂; it exists as a monatomic gas. Only very weak Van der Waals forces act between He atoms, which is why helium liquefies only at about 4.2 K. In contrast, H₂ is stable because its 2 electrons fill only the bonding orbital.

  • 2074 Asoj · 4 marks

Prove that for a simple cubic structure, the lattice constant: a = [NM/(ρNA)]^(1/3) where, N is the number of atoms per unit cell, M is atomic weight, NA is Avogadro's number and ρ is density of crystal material.

Answer

The density of a crystal equals the mass of the atoms in one unit cell divided by the volume of the cell.

Let

  • NN = number of atoms per unit cell,
  • MM = atomic weight (mass of one mole of atoms, kg/mol),
  • NAN_A = Avogadro's number,
  • aa = lattice constant, ρ\rho = density.

Proof

Mass of one atom:

matom=MNAm_{atom} = \frac{M}{N_A}

Mass of atoms in one unit cell:

mcell=N⋅MNAm_{cell} = N\cdot\frac{M}{N_A}

The unit cell is a cube of side aa, so its volume is Vcell=a3V_{cell} = a^3.

Density:

ρ=mcellVcell=NMNA a3\rho = \frac{m_{cell}}{V_{cell}} = \frac{NM}{N_A\,a^3}

Rearranging:

a3=NMρNA⇒a=[NMρNA]1/3a^3 = \frac{NM}{\rho N_A} \qquad\Rightarrow\qquad a = \left[\frac{NM}{\rho N_A}\right]^{1/3}

Hence proved. For a simple cubic cell, N=8×18=1N = 8\times\frac{1}{8} = 1; the same relation holds for BCC (N=2N = 2) and FCC (N=4N = 4) with the proper NN.

Example

Copper (FCC): N=4N = 4, M=63.55×10−3M = 63.55\times10^{-3} kg/mol, ρ=8960\rho = 8960 kg/m³:

a=[4×63.55×10−38960×6.022×1023]1/3=3.61×10−10 m=0.361 nma = \left[\frac{4\times63.55\times10^{-3}}{8960\times6.022\times10^{23}}\right]^{1/3} = 3.61\times10^{-10}\ \text{m} = 0.361\ \text{nm}

which agrees with the measured lattice constant of copper (0.3615 nm).

  • 2073 Shrawan · 6 marks

Define and explain the effective mass of electron within a crystal. How do you understand negative and infinite mass of electron?

Answer

The effective mass m∗m^* of an electron in a crystal is the mass that makes Newton's law Fext=m∗aF_{ext} = m^*a hold for the external force alone. It includes the effect of the internal forces from the lattice, which are too complex to write directly.

Expression

With group velocity vg=1ℏdEdkv_g = \frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{dE}{dk} and Fext=ℏdkdtF_{ext} = \hbar\frac{dk}{dt}:

a=dvgdt=1ℏd2Edk2dkdt=1ℏ2d2Edk2Fexta = \frac{dv_g}{dt} = \frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{d^2E}{dk^2}\frac{dk}{dt} = \frac{1}{\hbar^2}\frac{d^2E}{dk^2}F_{ext} m∗=ℏ2d2E/dk2m^* = \frac{\hbar^2}{d^2E/dk^2}

So m∗m^* is set by the curvature of the E–k curve. For a free electron (E=ℏ2k2/2meE = \hbar^2k^2/2m_e), m∗=mem^* = m_e.

E–k diagram of a band

   E
   ^   __                           __
   |     \   m* < 0       m* < 0   /
   |      \                       /
   |       x  <- m* = infinite -> x
   |        \   (inflection)     /
   |         \                  /
   |          `-.__ m* > 0 __.-'
   +----|--------------|--------------|---> k
      -pi/a            0            +pi/a

Negative effective mass

Near the top of a band (close to k=±π/ak = \pm\pi/a) the curve bends downward, d2E/dk2<0d^2E/dk^2 < 0, so m∗<0m^* < 0. Here the electron wave is close to the Bragg condition and is strongly reflected by the lattice. When a force pushes it, the lattice pushes back even harder, so the electron accelerates opposite to the applied force, as if its mass were negative. An electron with negative charge and negative mass behaves like a positive charge with positive mass: this is the basis of the hole concept for the top of the valence band.

Infinite effective mass

At the inflection point of the curve (k=±π/2ak = \pm\pi/2a for a cosine band) d2E/dk2=0d^2E/dk^2 = 0, so m∗→∞m^* \to \infty. The velocity vgv_g is maximum there; an applied force cannot increase it, so the acceleration is zero. The external force is exactly balanced by the lattice force; the electron behaves as an infinitely heavy particle.

Negative and infinite mass are not real changes in the electron's mass; they are ways of describing how the lattice modifies its response to an external force.

  • 2073 Shrawan · 6 marks

What are energy bands? Distinguish between a conductor, an insulator and a semiconductor on the basis of energy diagram. Write two characteristic features to [?] (rest of the question is cut off in the scan).

Answer

An energy band is a set of very closely spaced allowed energy levels in a solid. When NN atoms come together, each atomic level splits into NN levels because the outer orbitals overlap (Pauli principle); these form a nearly continuous band. Bands are separated by forbidden gaps EgE_g in which no electron states exist. The highest band containing valence electrons is the valence band (VB) and the next higher band is the conduction band (CB).

Conductor, semiconductor and insulator

  Conductor        Semiconductor     Insulator
 +---------+       +---------+      +---------+
 |   CB    |       |   CB    |      |   CB    |
 |#########|       +---------+      +---------+
 +---------+          Eg ~ 1 eV
 |#########| overlap +---------+       Eg > 5 eV
 |   VB    |       |#########|
 +---------+       |#  VB   #|      +---------+
  (or partly       +---------+      |#########|
   filled band)                     |#  VB   #|
                                    +---------+
  ### = filled with electrons
PointConductorSemiconductorInsulator
Band gap EgE_gNone (bands overlap or band half-filled)Small, about 1 eV (Si 1.1, Ge 0.67)Large, > 5 eV (diamond 5.5)
Electrons in CB at 300 KVery manyFew (thermally excited)Practically none
Resistivity (Ω m)10−810^{-8} to 10−610^{-6}10−410^{-4} to 10310^{3}101010^{10} to 102010^{20}
Temperature coefficientPositiveNegativeNegative (very high R)
ExamplesCu, Al, AgSi, Ge, GaAsGlass, mica, diamond
  • Conductor: VB and CB overlap (e.g. Mg) or the highest band is only half filled (e.g. Na, Cu). Free electrons exist even at 0 K, so a small field produces a large current.
  • Semiconductor: at 0 K the VB is full and the CB empty, so it is an insulator. At room temperature some electrons gain enough thermal energy to jump the small gap, leaving holes, so conduction increases with temperature.
  • Insulator: the gap is so large that thermal or ordinary electric field energy cannot lift electrons into the CB.

Two characteristic features of each

(The rest of the question is cut off; the usual demand is two features of each type.)

  • Conductors: (1) high conductivity due to a large number of free electrons; (2) resistance rises with temperature, because lattice vibrations scatter electrons more.
  • Semiconductors: (1) conductivity rises sharply with temperature (negative temperature coefficient); (2) conductivity can be controlled by doping, producing n-type or p-type material, with both electrons and holes as carriers.
  • Insulators: (1) very high resistivity and high dielectric strength; (2) they break down and conduct only under very high fields or temperatures.
  • 2072 Chaitra · 8 marks

Define Fermi Energy. What is the probability that an electron having energy less than Fermi energy will occupy an energy level at absolute zero temperature? Determine the expectation value for any property of a particle described by a wave function Ψ.

Answer

Fermi energy

The Fermi energy EFE_F is the energy of the highest filled electron level in a metal at absolute zero. At 0 K all levels below EFE_F are occupied and all above are empty. At any temperature T>0T > 0, EFE_F is the energy at which the probability of occupation is exactly 12\frac{1}{2}. For metals EFE_F is a few eV (Cu: about 7 eV) and is given by EF=h28m(3nπ)2/3E_F = \dfrac{h^2}{8m}\left(\dfrac{3n}{\pi}\right)^{2/3}.

Occupation probability below EFE_F at 0 K

The Fermi–Dirac distribution function is

f(E)=11+exp⁡(E−EFkT)f(E) = \frac{1}{1 + \exp\left(\dfrac{E - E_F}{kT}\right)}

For E<EFE < E_F, (E−EF)(E - E_F) is negative. As T→0T \to 0:

E−EFkT→−∞,e−∞=0,f(E)=11+0=1\frac{E - E_F}{kT} \to -\infty, \qquad e^{-\infty} = 0, \qquad f(E) = \frac{1}{1 + 0} = 1

So an electron state with energy less than EFE_F is certainly occupied (probability = 1, i.e. 100 %) at 0 K. (For E>EFE > E_F, f(E)=1/(1+∞)=0f(E) = 1/(1 + \infty) = 0.)

 f(E)
  1 +-----------+   T = 0 K
    |           |\
 0.5|- - - - - -+ \  T > 0 K
    |           |  \___
  0 +-----------+------------> E
               E_F

Expectation value of any property

∣ψ∣2dx|\psi|^2dx is the probability of finding the particle between xx and x+dxx + dx. If a property AA is represented by the operator A^\hat{A}, the expectation value (average of many measurements on identical systems) is

⟨A⟩=∫−∞∞ψ∗ A^ ψ dx∫−∞∞ψ∗ψ dx\langle A\rangle = \frac{\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\psi^*\,\hat{A}\,\psi\,dx}{\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\psi^*\psi\,dx}

For a normalized wave function (∫ψ∗ψ dx=1\int\psi^*\psi\,dx = 1):

⟨A⟩=∫−∞∞ψ∗ A^ ψ dx\langle A\rangle = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\psi^*\,\hat{A}\,\psi\,dx

Derivation idea (for position): the particle is at xx with probability P(x) dx=∣ψ∣2dxP(x)\,dx = |\psi|^2dx. As with any weighted average,

⟨x⟩=∑xiPi∑Pi  →  ⟨x⟩=∫x ∣ψ∣2dx=∫ψ∗x ψ dx\langle x\rangle = \frac{\sum x_iP_i}{\sum P_i} \;\rightarrow\; \langle x\rangle = \int x\,|\psi|^2dx = \int\psi^*x\,\psi\,dx

Replacing xx by the operator for any other quantity gives the general result.

PropertyExpectation value
Position⟨x⟩=∫ψ∗x ψ dx\langle x\rangle = \int\psi^*x\,\psi\,dx
Momentum⟨p⟩=∫ψ∗(−jℏ∂∂x)ψ dx\langle p\rangle = \int\psi^*\left(-j\hbar\dfrac{\partial}{\partial x}\right)\psi\,dx
Energy⟨E⟩=∫ψ∗(jℏ∂∂t)ψ dx\langle E\rangle = \int\psi^*\left(j\hbar\dfrac{\partial}{\partial t}\right)\psi\,dx
Potential energy⟨V⟩=∫ψ∗V(x)ψ dx\langle V\rangle = \int\psi^*V(x)\psi\,dx

Example: for the ground state of an infinite well of width LL, ⟨x⟩=L/2\langle x\rangle = L/2 and ⟨E⟩=h2/8mL2\langle E\rangle = h^2/8mL^2.

  • 2072 Chaitra · 2+4 marks

What is effective mass? The electron at the top of valence band is said to have negative effective mass. Explain with the help of E-k diagram.

Answer

Effective mass m∗m^* is the apparent mass of an electron in a crystal when it is acted on by an external force, including the effect of the lattice:

m∗=ℏ2d2E/dk2m^* = \frac{\hbar^2}{d^2E/dk^2}

It depends on the curvature of the E–k curve.

Negative effective mass at the top of the valence band

  E
  ^            Conduction band
  |   \                          /
  |    \          m* > 0        /
  |     `-.__              __.-'
  |           ''--....--''        bottom of CB
  |                               (concave up)
  |  - - - - - - Eg  - - - - - - - - -
  |           .--~~~~--.         top of VB
  |       _.-'  m* < 0  '-._     (concave down)
  |     /                    \
  |    /   Valence band       \
  +---------------|------------------> k
                  0
  • At the top of the valence band the E–k curve is an inverted parabola: E≈Ev−ℏ2k22∣m∗∣E \approx E_v - \dfrac{\hbar^2k^2}{2|m^*|}.
  • So d2Edk2=−ℏ2∣m∗∣<0\dfrac{d^2E}{dk^2} = -\dfrac{\hbar^2}{|m^*|} < 0, and therefore m∗=ℏ2d2E/dk2m^* = \dfrac{\hbar^2}{d^2E/dk^2} is negative.

Physical meaning

An electron near the top of the band has a wave vector close to the Bragg reflection condition. When an electric field pushes it, the lattice reflects it so strongly that the electron accelerates opposite to the direction expected for a normal negative particle.

An electron with negative charge (−e-e) and negative mass (−∣m∗∣-|m^*|) accelerates in the same direction as a particle with positive charge and positive mass:

a=(−e)E−∣m∗∣=(+e)E+∣m∗∣a = \frac{(-e)E}{-|m^*|} = \frac{(+e)E}{+|m^*|}

So instead of tracking the many electrons with negative mass at the top of the valence band, we track the few empty states there and treat each one as a hole with charge +e+e and positive effective mass mh∗m_h^*. This is why holes in p-type semiconductors move in the direction of the field and carry current like positive particles.

  • 2071 Chaitra · 4 marks

Consider two copper wires separated only by their surface oxide layer (CuO) of thickness 3 nm. The surface oxide layer offer potential barrier of height 10eV to the conduction electrons in copper. What is the transmission probability for conduction electrons in copper, which have kinetic energy of about 7eV?

Answer

The thin CuO layer acts as a rectangular potential barrier. An electron with energy E<V0E < V_0 can cross it only by tunneling, with probability

T≈T0 e−2αa,α=2m(V0−E)ℏ,T0=16EV0(1−EV0)T \approx T_0\,e^{-2\alpha a}, \qquad \alpha = \frac{\sqrt{2m(V_0 - E)}}{\hbar}, \qquad T_0 = 16\frac{E}{V_0}\left(1 - \frac{E}{V_0}\right)

Given: V0=10V_0 = 10 eV, E=7E = 7 eV, a=3a = 3 nm =3×10−9= 3\times10^{-9} m, m=9.1×10−31m = 9.1\times10^{-31} kg, ℏ=1.055×10−34\hbar = 1.055\times10^{-34} J s.

Decay constant

V0−E=3 eV=3×1.6×10−19=4.8×10−19 Jα=2×9.1×10−31×4.8×10−191.055×10−34=9.347×10−251.055×10−34=8.86×109 m−1\begin{aligned} V_0 - E &= 3\ \text{eV} = 3\times1.6\times10^{-19} = 4.8\times10^{-19}\ \text{J} \\ \alpha &= \frac{\sqrt{2\times9.1\times10^{-31}\times4.8\times10^{-19}}}{1.055\times10^{-34}} \\ &= \frac{9.347\times10^{-25}}{1.055\times10^{-34}} = 8.86\times10^{9}\ \text{m}^{-1} \end{aligned}

Exponent

2αa=2×8.86×109×3×10−9=53.182\alpha a = 2\times8.86\times10^{9}\times3\times10^{-9} = 53.18

Transmission probability

T0=16×710(1−710)=16×0.7×0.3=3.36T≈3.36×e−53.18=3.36×8.03×10−24=2.70×10−23\begin{aligned} T_0 &= 16\times\frac{7}{10}\left(1 - \frac{7}{10}\right) = 16\times0.7\times0.3 = 3.36 \\ T &\approx 3.36\times e^{-53.18} = 3.36\times8.03\times10^{-24} \\ &= 2.70\times10^{-23} \end{aligned}

Answer: T≈2.7×10−23T \approx 2.7\times10^{-23} (if the prefactor T0T_0 is ignored, T≈e−2αa=8.0×10−24T \approx e^{-2\alpha a} = 8.0\times10^{-24}).

The probability is extremely small, so a 3 nm oxide layer is practically an insulator for these electrons. Because TT depends exponentially on thickness, a thinner oxide (about 1 nm) would let a significant tunneling current through, which is why lightly oxidised copper contacts still conduct.

  • 2071 Chaitra · 2+4 marks

Define lattice and basis of a crystal and draw a neat diagram of body centered cubic structure of chromium and determine its packing density and state its co-ordination number.

Answer

Lattice and basis

  • Lattice: an infinite, regular, periodic arrangement of points in space, each point having identical surroundings. It is a purely geometrical framework.
  • Basis: the atom or group of atoms placed at each lattice point.
Crystal=Lattice+Basis\text{Crystal} = \text{Lattice} + \text{Basis}

For chromium, the lattice is BCC and the basis is a single Cr atom.

BCC structure of chromium

One Cr atom at each of the 8 corners and one at the body centre. Atoms touch along the body diagonal.

        o-----------o
       /|          /|
      / |         / |      o = Cr atom at corner
     o-----------o  |      @ = Cr atom at centre
     |  |   @    |  |
     |  o--------|--o      atoms touch along
     | /         | /       body diagonal
     |/          |/
     o-----------o

Packing density

Atoms per cell: N=8×18+1=2N = 8\times\frac{1}{8} + 1 = 2.

Along the body diagonal: 3 a=4R⇒a=4R3\sqrt{3}\,a = 4R \Rightarrow a = \dfrac{4R}{\sqrt{3}}.

APF=N⋅43πR3a3=2×43πR3(4R3)3=83πR3×3364R3=3 π8=0.68\begin{aligned} \text{APF} &= \frac{N\cdot\frac{4}{3}\pi R^3}{a^3} = \frac{2\times\frac{4}{3}\pi R^3}{\left(\frac{4R}{\sqrt{3}}\right)^3} \\ &= \frac{\frac{8}{3}\pi R^3\times3\sqrt{3}}{64R^3} = \frac{\sqrt{3}\,\pi}{8} = 0.68 \end{aligned}

So 68 % of the volume of the cell is filled by atoms. (For Cr, R≈0.125R \approx 0.125 nm gives a=4R/3≈0.289a = 4R/\sqrt{3} \approx 0.289 nm.)

Coordination number

The body-centre atom touches all 8 corner atoms, and each corner atom touches the centre atoms of the 8 cells sharing that corner. So the coordination number is 8.

Answer: packing density =0.68= 0.68, coordination number =8= 8.

  • 2070 Chaitra · 4+4 marks

From free electron theory of metal, show that E-K diagram is parabolic. Also show the energy of electron in a linear metal is quantized.

Answer

E–k diagram is parabolic

In the free electron theory, the valence electrons of a metal move freely inside the metal; the potential inside is taken as constant (V=0V = 0). All the energy is kinetic:

E=12mv2=p22mE = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 = \frac{p^2}{2m}

By de Broglie, p=h/λ=ℏkp = h/\lambda = \hbar k where k=2π/λk = 2\pi/\lambda is the wave number:

E=ℏ2k22mE = \frac{\hbar^2k^2}{2m}

The same follows from the Schrödinger equation with V=0V = 0: ψ=Aejkx\psi = Ae^{jkx} gives −ℏ22m(−k2)ψ=Eψ-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}(-k^2)\psi = E\psi.

Since ℏ2/2m\hbar^2/2m is constant, E∝k2E \propto k^2: the E–k curve is a parabola, symmetric about k=0k = 0.

   E
   ^
   |  \                 /
   |   \               /     E = (hbar k)^2 / 2m
   |    \             /
   |     `.         .'
   |       `-.___.-'
   +------------|-------------> k
                0

The slope gives velocity v=1ℏdEdk=ℏkmv = \frac{1}{\hbar}\frac{dE}{dk} = \frac{\hbar k}{m}, and the curvature gives m∗=mm^* = m.

Energy in a linear metal is quantized

Consider a one-dimensional (linear) metal of length LL, e.g. a thin wire. Electrons move freely inside (V=0V = 0) but cannot leave it, because of the large surface barrier (work function). So it is a potential well with V=∞V = \infty outside.

Inside, the Schrödinger equation is

d2ψdx2+k2ψ=0,k2=2mEℏ2\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + k^2\psi = 0, \qquad k^2 = \frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}

with solution ψ=Asin⁡kx+Bcos⁡kx\psi = A\sin kx + B\cos kx. Boundary conditions:

  • ψ(0)=0⇒B=0\psi(0) = 0 \Rightarrow B = 0
  • ψ(L)=Asin⁡kL=0⇒kL=nπ\psi(L) = A\sin kL = 0 \Rightarrow kL = n\pi, so kn=nπLk_n = \dfrac{n\pi}{L}, n=1,2,3,…n = 1, 2, 3, \ldots

Therefore

En=ℏ2kn22m=n2h28mL2E_n = \frac{\hbar^2k_n^2}{2m} = \frac{n^2h^2}{8mL^2}

Only certain values of kk (spaced π/L\pi/L apart) and energy are allowed: the energy is quantized. The parabola above is really a set of closely spaced points.

Spacing of levels

For L=1L = 1 cm, E1=(6.626×10−34)28×9.1×10−31×(10−2)2=6.03×10−34E_1 = \dfrac{(6.626\times10^{-34})^2}{8\times9.1\times10^{-31}\times(10^{-2})^2} = 6.03\times10^{-34} J =3.8×10−15= 3.8\times10^{-15} eV. The levels are so close that in a macroscopic metal the energy appears continuous, but strictly it is quantized; quantization becomes important only when LL is in the nanometre range (quantum wires).

  • 2070 Chaitra · 4 marks

Find the wavelength of an electron accelerated by 100V.

Answer

An electron accelerated from rest through a potential difference VV gains kinetic energy eVeV. Its momentum is p=2meVp = \sqrt{2meV} and its de Broglie wavelength is λ=h/p\lambda = h/p.

Given: V=100V = 100 V, m=9.1×10−31m = 9.1\times10^{-31} kg, e=1.6×10−19e = 1.6\times10^{-19} C, h=6.626×10−34h = 6.626\times10^{-34} J s.

Kinetic energy and momentum

KE=eV=1.6×10−19×100=1.6×10−17 Jp=2m eV=2×9.1×10−31×1.6×10−17=5.396×10−24 kg m s−1\begin{aligned} KE &= eV = 1.6\times10^{-19}\times100 = 1.6\times10^{-17}\ \text{J} \\ p &= \sqrt{2m\,eV} = \sqrt{2\times9.1\times10^{-31}\times1.6\times10^{-17}} \\ &= 5.396\times10^{-24}\ \text{kg m s}^{-1} \end{aligned}

Wavelength

λ=hp=6.626×10−345.396×10−24=1.228×10−10 m\lambda = \frac{h}{p} = \frac{6.626\times10^{-34}}{5.396\times10^{-24}} = 1.228\times10^{-10}\ \text{m}

Answer: λ=1.23×10−10\lambda = 1.23\times10^{-10} m =0.123= 0.123 nm =1.23= 1.23 Å.

Shortcut: λ=1.227V\lambda = \dfrac{1.227}{\sqrt{V}} nm =1.22710=0.1227= \dfrac{1.227}{10} = 0.1227 nm. This wavelength is of the same order as the spacing of atoms in a crystal, so such electrons are diffracted by crystals (Davisson–Germer experiment).

  • 2068 Baisakh · 4 marks

Copper has FCC (Face-centered cubic) structure. Find the packing density and atomic concentration for copper if radius of copper atom is 0.128nm.

Answer

Copper has an FCC structure: 4 atoms per unit cell (8×18+6×128\times\frac{1}{8} + 6\times\frac{1}{2}), with atoms touching along the face diagonal, so 2 a=4R\sqrt{2}\,a = 4R.

Given: R=0.128R = 0.128 nm.

Lattice constant

a=22 R=22×0.128=0.3620 nm=3.620×10−10 ma3=(3.620×10−10)3=4.745×10−29 m3\begin{aligned} a &= 2\sqrt{2}\,R = 2\sqrt{2}\times0.128 = 0.3620\ \text{nm} = 3.620\times10^{-10}\ \text{m} \\ a^3 &= (3.620\times10^{-10})^3 = 4.745\times10^{-29}\ \text{m}^3 \end{aligned}

Packing density

APF=4×43πR3a3=4×43π×(0.128×10−9)34.745×10−29=3.513×10−294.745×10−29=0.74\begin{aligned} \text{APF} &= \frac{4\times\frac{4}{3}\pi R^3}{a^3} = \frac{4\times\frac{4}{3}\pi\times(0.128\times10^{-9})^3}{4.745\times10^{-29}} \\ &= \frac{3.513\times10^{-29}}{4.745\times10^{-29}} = 0.74 \end{aligned}

(In general, for FCC, APF=π/(32)=0.74\text{APF} = \pi/(3\sqrt{2}) = 0.74.)

Atomic concentration

nat=4a3=44.745×10−29=8.43×1028 atoms m−3n_{at} = \frac{4}{a^3} = \frac{4}{4.745\times10^{-29}} = 8.43\times10^{28}\ \text{atoms m}^{-3}

Answer: packing density =0.74= 0.74 (74 %); atomic concentration =8.43×1028= 8.43\times10^{28} m⁻³ =8.43×1022= 8.43\times10^{22} cm⁻³.

  • 2072 Kartik · 1+4 marks

What is density of states? Describe any statistical tool used in quantum mechanics to predict number of energy states being occupied by an electron.

Answer

Density of states

The density of states g(E)g(E) is the number of available electron states per unit energy per unit volume at energy EE. So g(E) dEg(E)\,dE is the number of states (per m³) between EE and E+dEE + dE. For free electrons in a metal

g(E)=82 π m3/2h3E1/2∝Eg(E) = \frac{8\sqrt{2}\,\pi\,m^{3/2}}{h^3}E^{1/2} \propto \sqrt{E}

Fermi–Dirac statistics

g(E)g(E) only says how many states exist. To know how many are occupied, quantum mechanics uses Fermi–Dirac (FD) statistics, which applies to electrons because they are identical, indistinguishable particles that obey the Pauli exclusion principle (at most one electron per state).

The probability that a state of energy EE is occupied at temperature TT is

f(E)=11+exp⁡(E−EFkT)f(E) = \frac{1}{1 + \exp\left(\dfrac{E - E_F}{kT}\right)}

where EFE_F is the Fermi energy and kk is Boltzmann's constant.

Properties:

  • At T=0T = 0 K: f(E)=1f(E) = 1 for E<EFE < E_F and f(E)=0f(E) = 0 for E>EFE > E_F (a sharp step).
  • At T>0T > 0: f(EF)=12f(E_F) = \frac{1}{2} at every temperature; the step becomes smooth over a range of a few kTkT around EFE_F.
  • For E−EF≫kTE - E_F \gg kT, f(E)≈e−(E−EF)/kTf(E) \approx e^{-(E - E_F)/kT} (Boltzmann approximation, used for semiconductors).
 f(E)
  1 +----------.          T = 0 K: step
    |           \
 0.5|- - - - - - x         T > 0: smooth
    |             \___
  0 +----------|-------------> E
              E_F

Number of occupied states

The number of electrons per unit volume per unit energy is the product:

nE(E)=g(E) f(E)n_E(E) = g(E)\,f(E)

and the total electron concentration is n=∫0∞g(E)f(E) dEn = \int_0^\infty g(E)f(E)\,dE. At 0 K this gives EF=h28m(3nπ)2/3E_F = \frac{h^2}{8m}\left(\frac{3n}{\pi}\right)^{2/3}.

Example: probability of occupation of a state 3kT3kT above EFE_F is 1/(1+e3)=0.0471/(1 + e^3) = 0.047.

  • 2072 Kartik · 6 marks

A 3nm thick oxide layer of CuO separates two copper conductors providing a barrier height of 10eV for the conduction of electrons in copper. Determine the transmission coefficient if the energy of electron is 5eV. What will be the new transmission coefficient if the thickness of CuO was reduced to 1nm.

Answer

The CuO layer is a rectangular barrier. The transmission (tunneling) coefficient for E<V0E < V_0 and a wide barrier is

T≈T0 e−2αa,α=2m(V0−E)ℏ,T0=16EV0(1−EV0)T \approx T_0\,e^{-2\alpha a}, \qquad \alpha = \frac{\sqrt{2m(V_0 - E)}}{\hbar}, \qquad T_0 = 16\frac{E}{V_0}\left(1 - \frac{E}{V_0}\right)

Given: V0=10V_0 = 10 eV, E=5E = 5 eV, a1=3a_1 = 3 nm, a2=1a_2 = 1 nm, m=9.1×10−31m = 9.1\times10^{-31} kg, ℏ=1.055×10−34\hbar = 1.055\times10^{-34} J s.

Decay constant

V0−E=5 eV=8×10−19 Jα=2×9.1×10−31×8×10−191.055×10−34=1.2066×10−241.055×10−34=1.144×1010 m−1\begin{aligned} V_0 - E &= 5\ \text{eV} = 8\times10^{-19}\ \text{J} \\ \alpha &= \frac{\sqrt{2\times9.1\times10^{-31}\times8\times10^{-19}}}{1.055\times10^{-34}} \\ &= \frac{1.2066\times10^{-24}}{1.055\times10^{-34}} = 1.144\times10^{10}\ \text{m}^{-1} \end{aligned} T0=16×510×(1−510)=4T_0 = 16\times\frac{5}{10}\times\left(1 - \frac{5}{10}\right) = 4

(a) Thickness 3 nm

2αa1=2×1.144×1010×3×10−9=68.65T1≈4×e−68.65=4×1.53×10−30=6.1×10−30\begin{aligned} 2\alpha a_1 &= 2\times1.144\times10^{10}\times3\times10^{-9} = 68.65 \\ T_1 &\approx 4\times e^{-68.65} = 4\times1.53\times10^{-30} = 6.1\times10^{-30} \end{aligned}

(b) Thickness 1 nm

2αa2=2×1.144×1010×1×10−9=22.88T2≈4×e−22.88=4×1.15×10−10=4.6×10−10\begin{aligned} 2\alpha a_2 &= 2\times1.144\times10^{10}\times1\times10^{-9} = 22.88 \\ T_2 &\approx 4\times e^{-22.88} = 4\times1.15\times10^{-10} = 4.6\times10^{-10} \end{aligned}
Oxide thickness2αa2\alpha aTT
3 nm68.656.1×10−306.1\times10^{-30}
1 nm22.884.6×10−104.6\times10^{-10}

Answer: T≈6.1×10−30T \approx 6.1\times10^{-30} for 3 nm and T≈4.6×10−10T \approx 4.6\times10^{-10} for 1 nm. (Without the prefactor: 1.5×10−301.5\times10^{-30} and 1.2×10−101.2\times10^{-10}.)

Reducing the thickness to one third increases the transmission by a factor of about e45.8≈7.5×1019e^{45.8} \approx 7.5\times10^{19}, showing the very strong (exponential) dependence of tunneling on barrier width.

  • 2071 Shrawan · 8 marks

Derive the relation of energy level inside a potential well of width L. Show mathematically that energy level in a copper wire of length L is quantized similar to energy level inside a potential well.

Answer

Energy levels in a potential well of width L

Consider a particle of mass mm in a one-dimensional infinite well:

V(x)=0  for 0<x<L,V(x)=∞  elsewhereV(x) = 0 \ \text{ for } 0 < x < L, \qquad V(x) = \infty \ \text{ elsewhere}
 V = inf |                  | V = inf
         |      V = 0       |
         |                  |
         +------------------+
         0                  L      x

Outside, ψ=0\psi = 0. Inside, the Schrödinger equation is

d2ψdx2+2mEℏ2ψ=0⇒d2ψdx2+k2ψ=0,k=2mEℏ\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + \frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}\psi = 0 \quad\Rightarrow\quad \frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + k^2\psi = 0, \quad k = \frac{\sqrt{2mE}}{\hbar}

General solution: ψ(x)=Asin⁡kx+Bcos⁡kx\psi(x) = A\sin kx + B\cos kx.

Boundary conditions (ψ\psi continuous, so zero at the walls):

  • ψ(0)=0⇒B=0\psi(0) = 0 \Rightarrow B = 0
  • ψ(L)=Asin⁡kL=0⇒kL=nπ\psi(L) = A\sin kL = 0 \Rightarrow kL = n\pi, n=1,2,3,…n = 1, 2, 3, \ldots
kn=nπLEn=ℏ2kn22m=n2π2ℏ22mL2=n2h28mL2\begin{aligned} k_n &= \frac{n\pi}{L} \\ E_n &= \frac{\hbar^2k_n^2}{2m} = \frac{n^2\pi^2\hbar^2}{2mL^2} = \frac{n^2h^2}{8mL^2} \end{aligned}

Normalizing, ψn(x)=2/L sin⁡(nπx/L)\psi_n(x) = \sqrt{2/L}\,\sin(n\pi x/L). Only discrete energies E1,4E1,9E1,…E_1, 4E_1, 9E_1, \ldots are allowed.

Copper wire of length L

In the free electron model, a conduction electron in a copper wire:

  • moves freely inside the wire, where the potential of the ion cores is nearly uniform (take V=0V = 0);
  • cannot escape at the ends, because leaving the metal needs energy equal to the work function (about 4.6 eV for Cu), which is very large compared with the energy changes involved. The ends act as nearly infinite walls.
          copper wire, length L
 surface  ======================  surface
 barrier  e-  ->    <-  e-    ->  barrier
   (high)   free electrons, V = 0   (high)
          0                      L

So the wire is exactly a one-dimensional potential well of width LL, and the electron's wave function must vanish (be zero) at x=0x = 0 and x=Lx = L. Applying the same Schrödinger equation and boundary conditions gives the same result:

En=n2h28mL2,n=1,2,3,…E_n = \frac{n^2h^2}{8mL^2}, \qquad n = 1, 2, 3, \ldots

Hence the energy of an electron in a copper wire is quantized, just like a particle in a potential well.

Why it seems continuous

For a wire of L=1L = 1 cm:

E1=(6.626×10−34)28×9.1×10−31×(10−2)2=6.03×10−34 J=3.8×10−15 eVE_1 = \frac{(6.626\times10^{-34})^2}{8\times9.1\times10^{-31}\times(10^{-2})^2} = 6.03\times10^{-34}\ \text{J} = 3.8\times10^{-15}\ \text{eV}

Near the Fermi level of copper (about 7 eV), n≈4.3×107n \approx 4.3\times10^{7} and the spacing between neighbouring levels is ΔE≈(2n+1)E1≈3×10−7\Delta E \approx (2n + 1)E_1 \approx 3\times10^{-7} eV, far smaller than kT=0.026kT = 0.026 eV. The levels are quantized but so closely spaced that they form a practically continuous band. Quantization becomes visible only when LL is a few nanometres.

  • 2071 Shrawan · 4 marks

An electron is confined in an infinite potential well. The length of confinement is 0.01 nm. Find the energy and wave function of electron at third energy level.

Answer

For an electron in a one-dimensional infinite potential well of width LL, the allowed energies and normalised wave functions are

En=n2h28mL2,ψn(x)=2L sin⁡(nπxL),0≤x≤LE_n = \frac{n^2 h^2}{8 m L^2}, \qquad \psi_n(x) = \sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}\,\sin\left(\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right),\quad 0 \le x \le L

and ψn=0\psi_n = 0 outside the well.

Given: L=0.01 nm=1×10−11 mL = 0.01\ \text{nm} = 1 \times 10^{-11}\ \text{m}, n=3n = 3, h=6.626×10−34 J sh = 6.626 \times 10^{-34}\ \text{J s}, m=9.109×10−31 kgm = 9.109 \times 10^{-31}\ \text{kg}.

Energy at third level

E3=32h28mL2=9×(6.626×10−34)28×9.109×10−31×(10−11)2=5.42×10−15 J=5.42×10−151.602×10−19=3.38×104 eV≈33.8 keV\begin{aligned} E_3 &= \frac{3^2 h^2}{8 m L^2} = \frac{9 \times (6.626 \times 10^{-34})^2}{8 \times 9.109 \times 10^{-31} \times (10^{-11})^2} \\ &= 5.42 \times 10^{-15}\ \text{J} \\ &= \frac{5.42 \times 10^{-15}}{1.602 \times 10^{-19}} = 3.38 \times 10^{4}\ \text{eV} \approx 33.8\ \text{keV} \end{aligned}

Wave function at third level

2L=210−11=4.47×105 m−1/2,3πL=9.42×1011 m−1\sqrt{\frac{2}{L}} = \sqrt{\frac{2}{10^{-11}}} = 4.47 \times 10^{5}\ \text{m}^{-1/2}, \qquad \frac{3\pi}{L} = 9.42 \times 10^{11}\ \text{m}^{-1} ψ3(x)=4.47×105 sin⁡(9.42×1011 x) m−1/2,0≤x≤10−11 m\psi_3(x) = 4.47 \times 10^{5}\, \sin\left(9.42 \times 10^{11}\, x\right)\ \text{m}^{-1/2}, \quad 0 \le x \le 10^{-11}\ \text{m}

ψ3\psi_3 has two nodes inside the well (at x=L/3x = L/3 and 2L/32L/3) and three half-wavelengths fit in the well.

Answer: E3=5.42×10−15 J≈33.8 keVE_3 = 5.42 \times 10^{-15}\ \text{J} \approx 33.8\ \text{keV}; ψ3(x)=4.47×105sin⁡(9.42×1011x)\psi_3(x) = 4.47 \times 10^{5} \sin(9.42 \times 10^{11} x) inside the well, zero outside.

  • 2071 Shrawan · 4 marks

The width of energy band is typically 10ev calculate: i) The density of states at the center of the band ii) The number of states per unit volume within a small energy range KT above the center.

Answer

Treat the band like a free-electron band, with energy measured from the bottom of the band. The density of states per unit volume per unit energy is

g(E)=8π2 m3/2h3 E1/2g(E) = \frac{8\pi\sqrt{2}\, m^{3/2}}{h^3}\, E^{1/2}

Given: band width =10 eV= 10\ \text{eV}, so the centre is at E=5 eV=8.01×10−19 JE = 5\ \text{eV} = 8.01 \times 10^{-19}\ \text{J}. Take T=300 KT = 300\ \text{K}.

i) Density of states at the centre of the band

g(5 eV)=8π2 (9.109×10−31)3/2(6.626×10−34)3×(8.01×10−19)1/2=9.51×1046 J−1 m−3=9.51×1046×1.602×10−19=1.52×1028 eV−1 m−3\begin{aligned} g(5\ \text{eV}) &= \frac{8\pi\sqrt{2}\,(9.109 \times 10^{-31})^{3/2}}{(6.626 \times 10^{-34})^3} \times (8.01 \times 10^{-19})^{1/2} \\ &= 9.51 \times 10^{46}\ \text{J}^{-1}\,\text{m}^{-3} \\ &= 9.51 \times 10^{46} \times 1.602 \times 10^{-19} = 1.52 \times 10^{28}\ \text{eV}^{-1}\,\text{m}^{-3} \end{aligned}

ii) Number of states per unit volume in a range kT above the centre

At 300 K, kT=1.381×10−23×3001.602×10−19=0.0259 eVkT = \frac{1.381 \times 10^{-23} \times 300}{1.602 \times 10^{-19}} = 0.0259\ \text{eV}. Since kT≪5 eVkT \ll 5\ \text{eV}, g(E)g(E) is almost constant over this small range, so

ΔN≈g(E) ΔE=1.52×1028×0.0259=3.94×1026 m−3\Delta N \approx g(E)\,\Delta E = 1.52 \times 10^{28} \times 0.0259 = 3.94 \times 10^{26}\ \text{m}^{-3}

Answer: (i) g=9.51×1046 J−1m−3=1.52×1028 eV−1m−3g = 9.51 \times 10^{46}\ \text{J}^{-1}\text{m}^{-3} = 1.52 \times 10^{28}\ \text{eV}^{-1}\text{m}^{-3}; (ii) about 3.94×10263.94 \times 10^{26} states per m³ (at 300 K).

  • 2070 Asar · 8 marks

What are the operators in quantum mechanics? Explain their uses in deducing the expected values of observable quantity.

Answer

In quantum mechanics an operator is a mathematical instruction that acts on a wave function ψ\psi to give another function. Every measurable (observable) quantity such as position, momentum or energy has a corresponding operator. When the operator acts on ψ\psi and returns a constant times ψ\psi, that constant is the value we would measure.

Common operators

ObservableClassical formOperator
Positionxxx^=x\hat{x} = x
Momentumpxp_xp^x=−iℏ∂∂x\hat{p}_x = -i\hbar \dfrac{\partial}{\partial x}
Kinetic energyp22m\dfrac{p^2}{2m}−ℏ22m∂2∂x2-\dfrac{\hbar^2}{2m}\dfrac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}
Potential energyV(x)V(x)V(x)V(x)
Total energy (Hamiltonian)p22m+V\dfrac{p^2}{2m} + VH^=−ℏ22m∂2∂x2+V(x)\hat{H} = -\dfrac{\hbar^2}{2m}\dfrac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2} + V(x)
Energy (time form)EEE^=iℏ∂∂t\hat{E} = i\hbar \dfrac{\partial}{\partial t}

Writing H^ψ=E^ψ\hat{H}\psi = \hat{E}\psi gives the Schrödinger equation itself, so the operators are the basis of quantum mechanics.

Eigenvalue equation

If A^ψ=aψ\hat{A}\psi = a\psi with aa a constant, then ψ\psi is an eigenfunction of A^\hat{A} and aa is its eigenvalue. A measurement of AA on this state always gives exactly aa. Example: the time-independent Schrödinger equation H^ψ=Eψ\hat{H}\psi = E\psi gives the allowed energies EE.

Expectation value

In general a state is not an eigenfunction, so repeated measurements give different results. The expectation value is the average of many measurements on identical systems. Since ∣ψ∣2dx|\psi|^2 dx is the probability of finding the particle between xx and x+dxx+dx:

⟨A⟩=∫−∞∞ψ∗ A^ ψ dx∫−∞∞ψ∗ψ dx\langle A \rangle = \frac{\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \psi^*\, \hat{A}\, \psi \, dx}{\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \psi^* \psi \, dx}

For a normalised wave function the denominator is 1. Then:

⟨x⟩=∫ψ∗x ψ dx,⟨p⟩=∫ψ∗(−iℏ∂ψ∂x)dx,⟨E⟩=∫ψ∗H^ψ dx\langle x \rangle = \int \psi^* x\, \psi\, dx, \qquad \langle p \rangle = \int \psi^* \left(-i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial x}\right) dx, \qquad \langle E \rangle = \int \psi^* \hat{H} \psi\, dx

The operator is placed between ψ∗\psi^* and ψ\psi so that derivatives act only on ψ\psi.

Example: particle in an infinite well

For ψn=2/L sin⁡(nπx/L)\psi_n = \sqrt{2/L}\,\sin(n\pi x/L) in 0≤x≤L0 \le x \le L:

  • ⟨x⟩=2L∫0Lxsin⁡2(nπx/L) dx=L2\langle x \rangle = \frac{2}{L}\int_0^L x \sin^2(n\pi x/L)\, dx = \frac{L}{2}, the centre of the well, as symmetry suggests.
  • ⟨p⟩=0\langle p \rangle = 0, because the particle moves left and right with equal probability.
  • H^ψn=n2h28mL2ψn\hat{H}\psi_n = \frac{n^2h^2}{8mL^2}\psi_n, so ⟨E⟩=En\langle E \rangle = E_n exactly: ψn\psi_n is an energy eigenfunction.

Uses

  1. They give the possible measured values (eigenvalues), e.g. quantised energy levels of electrons in atoms and solids.
  2. They give average values of position, momentum and energy for any state through ⟨A⟩\langle A \rangle.
  3. They allow uncertainties, Δx=⟨x2⟩−⟨x⟩2\Delta x = \sqrt{\langle x^2\rangle - \langle x\rangle^2}, to be calculated, linking to the uncertainty principle.
  • 2069 Asar · 2+6 marks

Sketch energy level and wave function diagram for n=1,2,3 for infinite potential well. Show that the wave function in the finite potential barrier decays exponentially.

Answer

Energy levels and wave functions for n = 1, 2, 3

For an infinite well of width LL: En=n2h28mL2E_n = \dfrac{n^2h^2}{8mL^2} and ψn=2Lsin⁡nπxL\psi_n = \sqrt{\dfrac{2}{L}}\sin\dfrac{n\pi x}{L}. So E2=4E1E_2 = 4E_1, E3=9E1E_3 = 9E_1, and ψn\psi_n has nn half-wavelengths with (n−1)(n-1) nodes inside the well.

         V=inf                      V=inf
n=3      |   ****             ****  |
         | **    *           *    **|
E3=9E1   |--------------------------|
         |          **   **         |
         |            ***           |
         |                          |
n=2      |    ******                |
         |  **      **              |
E2=4E1   |--------------------------|
         |               **      ** |
         |                 ******   |
         |                          |
n=1      |        ***********       |
         |   *****           *****  |
E1       |--------------------------|
         |                          |
         0                          L

The levels get wider apart as nn increases (ΔE∝2n+1\Delta E \propto 2n+1). ψ\psi is zero at both walls because the electron cannot enter a region of infinite potential.

Exponential decay inside a finite barrier

Let an electron of energy EE meet a barrier of height V0>EV_0 > E that starts at x=0x = 0.

 V(x)
  ^          ________________
  |    V0   |
  |  E -----|- - - - - -
  |  wave   |  decaying
  |  ~~~~~~ |\__
  |_________|___\___________> x
  Region I  0  Region II

Region II (x>0x > 0, V=V0V = V_0): the time-independent Schrödinger equation is

−ℏ22md2ψdx2+V0ψ=Eψ⇒d2ψdx2=2m(V0−E)ℏ2ψ=α2ψ-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + V_0\psi = E\psi \quad\Rightarrow\quad \frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} = \frac{2m(V_0 - E)}{\hbar^2}\psi = \alpha^2 \psi

where

α=2m(V0−E)ℏ\alpha = \frac{\sqrt{2m(V_0 - E)}}{\hbar}

is real and positive because V0>EV_0 > E. The general solution is

ψII(x)=Ce−αx+Deαx\psi_{II}(x) = C e^{-\alpha x} + D e^{\alpha x}

The term DeαxDe^{\alpha x} grows without limit as x→∞x \to \infty, so ψ\psi could not be normalised and ∣ψ∣2|\psi|^2 would not be a valid probability. Therefore D=0D = 0 and

ψII(x)=Ce−αx,∣ψII∣2=∣C∣2e−2αx\psi_{II}(x) = C e^{-\alpha x}, \qquad |\psi_{II}|^2 = |C|^2 e^{-2\alpha x}

The constant CC is fixed by matching ψ\psi and dψ/dxd\psi/dx to the oscillating wave Aeikx+Be−ikxAe^{ikx} + Be^{-ikx} of region I at x=0x = 0.

Result: the wave function inside the barrier is not zero (the electron can penetrate it), but it decays exponentially with distance. The penetration depth is δ=1/α\delta = 1/\alpha; it is smaller for a heavier particle or a higher barrier (V0−EV_0 - E larger). This finite penetration is the basis of tunnelling through thin barriers.

  • 2069 Chaitra · 4 marks

What is fermi-Dirac Distribution function? Prove that probability of finding electron 1.5 KT above the fermi level.

Answer

The Fermi-Dirac distribution function f(E)f(E) gives the probability that an available energy state at energy EE is occupied by an electron at temperature TT:

f(E)=11+exp⁡(E−EFkT)f(E) = \frac{1}{1 + \exp\left(\dfrac{E - E_F}{kT}\right)}

where EFE_F is the Fermi energy and kk is Boltzmann's constant. It follows from the Pauli exclusion principle (at most one electron per state).

Key features:

  • At T=0T = 0: f=1f = 1 for E<EFE < E_F and f=0f = 0 for E>EFE > E_F (a step).
  • At any T>0T > 0: f(EF)=1/2f(E_F) = 1/2.
  • The change from 1 to 0 happens over a few kTkT around EFE_F.
 f(E)
 1.0 |------\
     |       \   T > 0
 0.5 |- - - - *
     |         \
 0.0 |__________\------> E
               EF

Probability at 1.5kT above the Fermi level

Put E−EF=1.5kTE - E_F = 1.5kT:

f(EF+1.5kT)=11+e1.5kT/kT=11+e1.5=11+4.4817=0.182\begin{aligned} f(E_F + 1.5kT) &= \frac{1}{1 + e^{1.5kT/kT}} = \frac{1}{1 + e^{1.5}} \\ &= \frac{1}{1 + 4.4817} = 0.182 \end{aligned}

The result does not depend on temperature or on the material: at any TT, a state lying 1.5kT1.5kT above EFE_F is occupied with probability about 18%, and empty with probability 1−0.182=0.8181 - 0.182 = 0.818.

Answer: f=1/(1+e1.5)=0.182f = 1/(1+e^{1.5}) = 0.182, i.e. about 18.2%.

  • 2068 Shrawan · 8 marks

What is tunneling phenomenon? Derive the expression for the probability of tunneling the potential barrier of width L and height V by electron.

Answer

Tunnelling is the quantum effect in which a particle with energy EE passes through a potential barrier of height V>EV > E, which is impossible in classical mechanics. It happens because the wave function does not drop to zero inside the barrier but decays exponentially; if the barrier is thin, some of the wave reaches the far side. Examples: tunnel diode, scanning tunnelling microscope, field emission, conduction through thin oxide layers on contacts.

 V(x)
  ^        __________
  |   V   |          |
  | E-----|- - - - - |-----
  | ~~~~~ | \_       | ~~~
  |  I    |  II \__  | III
  |_______|__________|_____> x
          0          L

Wave functions in three regions

Let k=2mEℏk = \dfrac{\sqrt{2mE}}{\hbar} and α=2m(V−E)ℏ\alpha = \dfrac{\sqrt{2m(V - E)}}{\hbar}.

  • Region I (x<0x < 0, V=0V = 0): ψI=A1eikx+B1e−ikx\psi_I = A_1 e^{ikx} + B_1 e^{-ikx} (incident + reflected)
  • Region II (0<x<L0 < x < L, potential VV): ψII=A2eαx+B2e−αx\psi_{II} = A_2 e^{\alpha x} + B_2 e^{-\alpha x}
  • Region III (x>Lx > L, V=0V = 0): ψIII=A3eikx\psi_{III} = A_3 e^{ikx} (transmitted only)

Boundary conditions

ψ\psi and dψ/dxd\psi/dx are continuous at x=0x = 0 and x=Lx = L:

A1+B1=A2+B2ik(A1−B1)=α(A2−B2)A2eαL+B2e−αL=A3eikLα(A2eαL−B2e−αL)=ikA3eikL\begin{aligned} A_1 + B_1 &= A_2 + B_2 \\ ik(A_1 - B_1) &= \alpha(A_2 - B_2) \\ A_2 e^{\alpha L} + B_2 e^{-\alpha L} &= A_3 e^{ikL} \\ \alpha(A_2 e^{\alpha L} - B_2 e^{-\alpha L}) &= ik A_3 e^{ikL} \end{aligned}

Transmission coefficient

The tunnelling probability is the ratio of transmitted to incident flux. Since the speed is the same in regions I and III:

T=∣A3∣2∣A1∣2T = \frac{|A_3|^2}{|A_1|^2}

Eliminating B1,A2,B2B_1, A_2, B_2 from the four equations gives the exact result

T=[1+V2sinh⁡2(αL)4E(V−E)]−1T = \left[1 + \frac{V^2 \sinh^2(\alpha L)}{4E(V - E)}\right]^{-1}

Wide or high barrier (αL≫1\alpha L \gg 1)

Then sinh⁡(αL)≈12eαL\sinh(\alpha L) \approx \tfrac{1}{2}e^{\alpha L}, so sinh⁡2(αL)≈14e2αL≫1\sinh^2(\alpha L) \approx \tfrac{1}{4}e^{2\alpha L} \gg 1 and the 1 can be neglected:

T≈16E(V−E)V2 e−2αL=T0exp⁡[−2L2m(V−E)ℏ]T \approx \frac{16E(V - E)}{V^2}\, e^{-2\alpha L} = T_0 \exp\left[-\frac{2L\sqrt{2m(V - E)}}{\hbar}\right]

with T0=16E(V−E)V2T_0 = \dfrac{16E(V-E)}{V^2}.

Conclusions

  1. TT falls exponentially with barrier width LL; doubling LL greatly reduces tunnelling.
  2. TT falls as V−E\sqrt{V - E} rises, so a higher barrier or a lower electron energy reduces tunnelling.
  3. Heavier particles (larger mm) tunnel far less, which is why tunnelling is noticed for electrons and only for barriers of about a nanometre or less.
  4. Reflection probability is R=1−TR = 1 - T.
  • 2082 Kartik (new course) · 4 marks

For a given fermi energy level EF, show that the probability of emptying energy level KT below EF is equal to probability of occupying level KT above EF.

Answer

The Fermi-Dirac function gives the probability that a state at energy EE is occupied:

f(E)=11+exp⁡(E−EFkT)f(E) = \frac{1}{1 + \exp\left(\dfrac{E - E_F}{kT}\right)}

The probability that a state is empty is 1−f(E)1 - f(E).

Occupation of the level kT above EF

Put E=EF+kTE = E_F + kT:

f(EF+kT)=11+e1⋯(1)f(E_F + kT) = \frac{1}{1 + e^{1}} \quad \cdots (1)

Emptying of the level kT below EF

Put E=EF−kTE = E_F - kT:

1−f(EF−kT)=1−11+e−1=e−11+e−1\begin{aligned} 1 - f(E_F - kT) &= 1 - \frac{1}{1 + e^{-1}} = \frac{e^{-1}}{1 + e^{-1}} \end{aligned}

Multiply numerator and denominator by ee:

1−f(EF−kT)=1e+1⋯(2)1 - f(E_F - kT) = \frac{1}{e + 1} \quad \cdots (2)

Comparison

(1) and (2) are identical:

1−f(EF−kT)=f(EF+kT)=11+e=0.2691 - f(E_F - kT) = f(E_F + kT) = \frac{1}{1 + e} = 0.269

Hence the probability of a level kTkT below EFE_F being empty equals the probability of a level kTkT above EFE_F being occupied. Proved.

General result

The same steps work for any ΔE\Delta E:

1−f(EF−ΔE)=11+eΔE/kT=f(EF+ΔE)1 - f(E_F - \Delta E) = \frac{1}{1 + e^{\Delta E/kT}} = f(E_F + \Delta E)

So f(E)f(E) is symmetric about EFE_F (about the point f=1/2f = 1/2). Physically, the electrons that leave states just below EFE_F are the same ones that fill states just above EFE_F; the curve drops below 1 under EFE_F by exactly the amount it rises above 0 over EFE_F.

 f(E)
 1 |-----.
   |      \  <- holes (empty) below EF
 .5|- - - -*
   |        \ <- electrons above EF
 0 |_________'------> E
       EF-kT EF EF+kT
  • 2081 Chaitra (new course) · 3 marks

An electron is confined to an infinite potential well of size 8.5 nm. Calculate the ground state energy of the electron and radian frequency. How this electron can be put to the fourth energy level?

Answer

Given: L=8.5 nm=8.5×10−9 mL = 8.5\ \text{nm} = 8.5 \times 10^{-9}\ \text{m}, m=9.109×10−31 kgm = 9.109 \times 10^{-31}\ \text{kg}, h=6.626×10−34 J sh = 6.626 \times 10^{-34}\ \text{J s}, ℏ=h/2π=1.0546×10−34 J s\hbar = h/2\pi = 1.0546 \times 10^{-34}\ \text{J s}.

Ground state energy (n = 1)

E1=h28mL2=(6.626×10−34)28×9.109×10−31×(8.5×10−9)2=8.34×10−22 J=5.21×10−3 eV\begin{aligned} E_1 &= \frac{h^2}{8 m L^2} = \frac{(6.626 \times 10^{-34})^2}{8 \times 9.109 \times 10^{-31} \times (8.5 \times 10^{-9})^2} \\ &= 8.34 \times 10^{-22}\ \text{J} = 5.21 \times 10^{-3}\ \text{eV} \end{aligned}

Radian frequency

From E=ℏωE = \hbar\omega:

ω1=E1ℏ=8.34×10−221.0546×10−34=7.91×1012 rad/s\omega_1 = \frac{E_1}{\hbar} = \frac{8.34 \times 10^{-22}}{1.0546 \times 10^{-34}} = 7.91 \times 10^{12}\ \text{rad/s}

Raising the electron to the fourth level

E4=42E1=16E1E_4 = 4^2 E_1 = 16E_1, so the electron must absorb energy

ΔE=E4−E1=15E1=15×5.21×10−3=0.0781 eV (1.25×10−20 J)\Delta E = E_4 - E_1 = 15E_1 = 15 \times 5.21 \times 10^{-3} = 0.0781\ \text{eV}\ (1.25 \times 10^{-20}\ \text{J})

This can be given by a photon of exactly this energy:

λ=hcΔE=6.626×10−34×3×1081.25×10−20=1.59×10−5 m=15.9 μm\lambda = \frac{hc}{\Delta E} = \frac{6.626 \times 10^{-34} \times 3 \times 10^{8}}{1.25 \times 10^{-20}} = 1.59 \times 10^{-5}\ \text{m} = 15.9\ \mu\text{m}

i.e. infrared radiation of frequency f=ΔE/h=1.89×1013 Hzf = \Delta E/h = 1.89 \times 10^{13}\ \text{Hz}. (The energy could also come from a collision, but it must equal exactly 15E115E_1; energy in between is not accepted.)

Answer: E1=8.34×10−22 J=5.21 meVE_1 = 8.34 \times 10^{-22}\ \text{J} = 5.21\ \text{meV}; ω=7.91×1012 rad/s\omega = 7.91 \times 10^{12}\ \text{rad/s}; to reach n=4n = 4 it must absorb 0.0781 eV0.0781\ \text{eV} (a photon of λ≈15.9 μm\lambda \approx 15.9\ \mu\text{m}).

  • 2081 Chaitra (new course) · 4 marks

Find the temperature at which the probability of occupation of the energy state 0.75 eV above the Fermi energy is 30%.

Answer

The probability of occupation is given by the Fermi-Dirac function:

f(E)=11+exp⁡(E−EFkT)f(E) = \frac{1}{1 + \exp\left(\dfrac{E - E_F}{kT}\right)}

Given: E−EF=0.75 eV=0.75×1.602×10−19=1.2015×10−19 JE - E_F = 0.75\ \text{eV} = 0.75 \times 1.602 \times 10^{-19} = 1.2015 \times 10^{-19}\ \text{J}, f=0.30f = 0.30, k=1.381×10−23 J/Kk = 1.381 \times 10^{-23}\ \text{J/K}.

Solve for T

0.30=11+ex,x=E−EFkT1+ex=10.30=3.333ex=2.333=73x=ln⁡(2.333)=0.8473\begin{aligned} 0.30 &= \frac{1}{1 + e^{x}}, \quad x = \frac{E - E_F}{kT} \\ 1 + e^{x} &= \frac{1}{0.30} = 3.333 \\ e^{x} &= 2.333 = \frac{7}{3} \\ x &= \ln(2.333) = 0.8473 \end{aligned}

So

T=E−EFk×0.8473=1.2015×10−191.381×10−23×0.8473=1.03×104 KT = \frac{E - E_F}{k \times 0.8473} = \frac{1.2015 \times 10^{-19}}{1.381 \times 10^{-23} \times 0.8473} = 1.03 \times 10^{4}\ \text{K}

Such a high temperature is needed because a state 0.75 eV above EFE_F is far from the Fermi level compared with kTkT at room temperature (0.026 eV), where its occupation would be almost zero.

Answer: T≈10 268 K≈1.03×104 KT \approx 10\,268\ \text{K} \approx 1.03 \times 10^{4}\ \text{K}.

Questions from Old Question Collection (EE 502) (IOE EE 502 exam papers from 2068 to 2081), Question bank (ioesolutions) (IOE EE 502 exam papers from 2068 to 2074) and 2080 course papers (ENEE 203) (IOE ENEE 203 exam papers, 2081 Chaitra and 2082 Kartik). Answers are written for this site; check them against your class notes.

Chapter titles and hours from the IOE syllabus ↗