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Infinite potential well: quantized energy and wave function

Short answer

Solving the Schrödinger equation for a particle in an infinite well (0<x<L) with ψ(0)=ψ(L)=0 forces sin(kL)=0, so k_n=nπ/L. This gives quantized energies E_n = n²h²/(8mL²), n=1,2,... . The normalized wavefunctions are ψ_n(x) = √(2/L) sin(nπx/L), with corresponding probability densities |ψ|².

Prove that the energy of a particle confined in an infinite potential well is quantized. Find also the expression for normalized wave function and draw graph for Ψ and |Ψ|².

A particle in an infinite potential well of width LL is free inside the well (V=0V = 0 for 0<x<L0 < x < L) but cannot leave it (V=∞V = \infty outside). Applying the Schrödinger equation with the boundary conditions shows that only certain discrete energies are allowed.

 V = inf |                    | V = inf
         |                    |
         |      V = 0         |
         |   (particle here)  |
         +--------------------+
         0                    L    x

Solving the Schrödinger equation

Outside the well ψ=0\psi = 0. Inside, with V=0V = 0:

d2ψdx2+k2ψ=0,k2=2mEℏ2\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + k^2\psi = 0, \qquad k^2 = \frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}

General solution:

ψ(x)=Asin⁡kx+Bcos⁡kx\psi(x) = A\sin kx + B\cos kx

Applying boundary conditions

  • At x=0x = 0: ψ(0)=0⇒B=0\psi(0) = 0 \Rightarrow B = 0, so ψ=Asin⁡kx\psi = A\sin kx.
  • At x=Lx = L: ψ(L)=Asin⁡kL=0\psi(L) = A\sin kL = 0. Since A≠0A \neq 0, sin⁡kL=0\sin kL = 0:
kL=nπ⇒kn=nπL,n=1,2,3,…kL = n\pi \quad\Rightarrow\quad k_n = \frac{n\pi}{L}, \qquad n = 1, 2, 3, \ldots

(n=0n = 0 gives ψ=0\psi = 0 everywhere, i.e. no particle, so it is excluded.)

Quantized energy

En=ℏ2kn22m=ℏ22m⋅n2π2L2=n2h28mL2\begin{aligned} E_n &= \frac{\hbar^2 k_n^2}{2m} = \frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\cdot\frac{n^2\pi^2}{L^2} \\ &= \frac{n^2 h^2}{8 m L^2} \end{aligned}

Since nn can only be a whole number, the energy can take only the values E1,4E1,9E1,…E_1, 4E_1, 9E_1, \ldots where E1=h2/(8mL2)E_1 = h^2/(8mL^2). The energy is quantized. The lowest energy E1E_1 is not zero (zero-point energy).

Normalized wave function

The particle must be somewhere in the well:

∫0L∣ψ∣2dx=A2∫0Lsin⁡2nπxL dx=A2⋅L2=1A=2L\begin{aligned} \int_0^L |\psi|^2 dx &= A^2\int_0^L \sin^2\frac{n\pi x}{L}\,dx = A^2\cdot\frac{L}{2} = 1 \\ A &= \sqrt{\frac{2}{L}} \end{aligned} ψn(x)=2L sin⁡nπxL,0≤x≤L\psi_n(x) = \sqrt{\frac{2}{L}}\,\sin\frac{n\pi x}{L}, \qquad 0 \le x \le L

Graphs of ψn\psi_n and ∣ψn∣2|\psi_n|^2

        psi_n(x)                 |psi_n(x)|^2
 n=3 |  _         _  |      |  _    _    _  |  E3=9E1
     | / \       / \ |      | / \  / \  / \ |
     |/   \     /   \|      |/   \/   \/   \|
     0     \_ _/     L      0               L

 n=2 |   _           |      |   _       _   |  E2=4E1
     |  / \          |      |  / \     / \  |
     |_/   \       _/|      |_/   \___/   \_|
     0      \_____/  L      0               L

 n=1 |    .----.     |      |     .--.      |  E1
     |  /        \   |      |   /      \    |
     |/            \ |      |__/        \___|
     0               L      0               L
  • ψn\psi_n has (n−1)(n - 1) nodes inside the well; it fits exactly nn half-wavelengths, L=nλ/2L = n\lambda/2.
  • ∣ψn∣2|\psi_n|^2 gives the probability density. For n=1n = 1 the particle is most likely at the centre; for n=2n = 2 it is never found at x=L/2x = L/2, which is quite unlike a classical particle.

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

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