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Well wave functions and finite barrier decay

Short answer

In an infinite well, wavefunctions are sinusoidal with n half‑waves and energies E_n = n²h²/(8mL²). Inside a finite barrier of height V0 > E, the Schrödinger equation gives d²ψ/dx² = α²ψ with α = √[2m(V0−E)]/ħ, leading to the decaying solution ψ ∝ e^{−αx}, so probability density decays exponentially.

Sketch energy level and wave function diagram for n=1,2,3 for infinite potential well. Show that the wave function in the finite potential barrier decays exponentially.

Energy levels and wave functions for n = 1, 2, 3

For an infinite well of width LL: En=n2h28mL2E_n = \dfrac{n^2h^2}{8mL^2} and ψn=2Lsin⁡nπxL\psi_n = \sqrt{\dfrac{2}{L}}\sin\dfrac{n\pi x}{L}. So E2=4E1E_2 = 4E_1, E3=9E1E_3 = 9E_1, and ψn\psi_n has nn half-wavelengths with (n−1)(n-1) nodes inside the well.

         V=inf                      V=inf
n=3      |   ****             ****  |
         | **    *           *    **|
E3=9E1   |--------------------------|
         |          **   **         |
         |            ***           |
         |                          |
n=2      |    ******                |
         |  **      **              |
E2=4E1   |--------------------------|
         |               **      ** |
         |                 ******   |
         |                          |
n=1      |        ***********       |
         |   *****           *****  |
E1       |--------------------------|
         |                          |
         0                          L

The levels get wider apart as nn increases (ΔE∝2n+1\Delta E \propto 2n+1). ψ\psi is zero at both walls because the electron cannot enter a region of infinite potential.

Exponential decay inside a finite barrier

Let an electron of energy EE meet a barrier of height V0>EV_0 > E that starts at x=0x = 0.

 V(x)
  ^          ________________
  |    V0   |
  |  E -----|- - - - - -
  |  wave   |  decaying
  |  ~~~~~~ |\__
  |_________|___\___________> x
  Region I  0  Region II

Region II (x>0x > 0, V=V0V = V_0): the time-independent Schrödinger equation is

−ℏ22md2ψdx2+V0ψ=Eψ⇒d2ψdx2=2m(V0−E)ℏ2ψ=α2ψ-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} + V_0\psi = E\psi \quad\Rightarrow\quad \frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2} = \frac{2m(V_0 - E)}{\hbar^2}\psi = \alpha^2 \psi

where

α=2m(V0−E)ℏ\alpha = \frac{\sqrt{2m(V_0 - E)}}{\hbar}

is real and positive because V0>EV_0 > E. The general solution is

ψII(x)=Ce−αx+Deαx\psi_{II}(x) = C e^{-\alpha x} + D e^{\alpha x}

The term DeαxDe^{\alpha x} grows without limit as x→∞x \to \infty, so ψ\psi could not be normalised and ∣ψ∣2|\psi|^2 would not be a valid probability. Therefore D=0D = 0 and

ψII(x)=Ce−αx,∣ψII∣2=∣C∣2e−2αx\psi_{II}(x) = C e^{-\alpha x}, \qquad |\psi_{II}|^2 = |C|^2 e^{-2\alpha x}

The constant CC is fixed by matching ψ\psi and dψ/dxd\psi/dx to the oscillating wave Aeikx+Be−ikxAe^{ikx} + Be^{-ikx} of region I at x=0x = 0.

Result: the wave function inside the barrier is not zero (the electron can penetrate it), but it decays exponentially with distance. The penetration depth is δ=1/α\delta = 1/\alpha; it is smaller for a heavier particle or a higher barrier (V0−EV_0 - E larger). This finite penetration is the basis of tunnelling through thin barriers.

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

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