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Iron ring: reluctance and flux with saw cut

Short answer

Mean length l = π m. (i) Reluctance S = l/(μ₀μ_r A) = 1.25×10⁶ AT/Wb. (ii) Flux without gap = NI/S = 1000/1.25e6 = 8×10⁻⁴ Wb = 0.8 mWb. (iii) With 1 mm saw cut, iron path l_i = π–0.001 m, S_total = S_i + S_g = 2.0454×10⁶ AT/Wb, flux = 1000/2.0454e6 = 4.89×10⁻⁴ Wb (0.489 mWb).

An iron ring of mean diameter 100 cm and cross sectional area 10 cm2^2 is wound with 1000 turns and has μr=2000\mu_r = 2000. Compute (i) reluctance (ii) flux produced in the ring when the current through the coil is 1 A (iii) flux in the ring if a saw cut of 1 mm length is made, the current through the coil remaining the same.

Given: D=100D = 100 cm, A=10A = 10 cm2=10−3^2 = 10^{-3} m2^2, N=1000N = 1000, μr=2000\mu_r = 2000, I=1I = 1 A.

(i) Reluctance (no saw cut)

l=πD=π mS=lμ0μrA=π4π×10−7×2000×10−3=1.25×106 AT/Wb\begin{aligned} l &= \pi D = \pi\ \text{m} \\ S &= \frac{l}{\mu_0\mu_r A} = \frac{\pi}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times2000\times10^{-3}} = 1.25\times10^{6}\ \text{AT/Wb} \end{aligned}

(ii) Flux with 1 A

Φ=NIS=1000×11.25×106=8×10−4 Wb=0.8 mWb\Phi = \frac{NI}{S} = \frac{1000\times1}{1.25\times10^{6}} = 8\times10^{-4}\ \text{Wb} = 0.8\ \text{mWb}

(iii) Flux with a 1 mm saw cut

The iron path becomes li=π−0.001=3.1406l_i = \pi - 0.001 = 3.1406 m, and the gap is lg=1l_g = 1 mm.

Si=3.14064π×10−7×2000×10−3=1.2496×106Sg=0.0014π×10−7×10−3=7.958×105Stotal=2.0454×106 AT/WbΦ=10002.0454×106=4.889×10−4 Wb\begin{aligned} S_i &= \frac{3.1406}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times2000\times10^{-3}} = 1.2496\times10^{6} \\ S_g &= \frac{0.001}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times10^{-3}} = 7.958\times10^{5} \\ S_{total} &= 2.0454\times10^{6}\ \text{AT/Wb} \\ \Phi &= \frac{1000}{2.0454\times10^{6}} = 4.889\times10^{-4}\ \text{Wb} \end{aligned}

A gap of only 1 mm cuts the flux from 0.8 mWb to 0.489 mWb, because air has a much higher reluctance than iron.

Answer: (i) 1.25×1061.25\times10^6 AT/Wb; (ii) 0.8 mWb; (iii) 0.489 mWb

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

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