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Ideal transformer principle and emf equation

Short answer

An ideal transformer has zero losses, infinite permeability, and all flux links both windings. Operating principle: ac voltage on primary sets up core flux that induces emfs in both coils per Faraday's law, voltage ratio equals turns ratio. Emf equation: E1 = 4.44 f N1 φm, E2 = 4.44 f N2 φm, derived from e = -N dφ/dt for sinusoidal flux.

What do you mean by an ideal transformer? Explain the operating principle of an ideal single phase transformer and derive the emf equation.

An ideal transformer is one with zero winding resistance, no leakage flux (all flux links both windings), no hysteresis or eddy-current loss, and a core of infinite permeability, so it needs no magnetising current. Its efficiency is 100% and its voltage regulation is zero.

Operating principle

A transformer works on mutual induction (Faraday's law).

           phi (alternating)
     +---------------------+
 o---|]                   [|---o
 V1  |]  N1     core  N2  [|   V2 -> load
 o---|]                   [|---o
     +---------------------+
   primary             secondary
  1. An ac voltage V1V_1 is applied to the primary winding of N1N_1 turns.
  2. The current sets up an alternating flux φ in the laminated iron core.
  3. The flux links the secondary winding of N2N_2 turns and induces in it an emf E2E_2 of the same frequency. The same flux induces a back emf E1E_1 in the primary that balances V1V_1.
  4. When a load is connected, I2I_2 flows; the primary automatically draws a matching current so that N1I1=N2I2N_1I_1 = N_2I_2 and V1I1=V2I2V_1I_1 = V_2I_2.
  5. Since emf per turn is the same in both windings, V1/V2=N1/N2V_1/V_2 = N_1/N_2: the voltage is stepped up or down without changing frequency.

EMF equation

Let the flux be sinusoidal: ϕ=ϕmsin⁡ωt\phi = \phi_m\sin\omega t, ω=2πf\omega = 2\pi f.

e1=−N1dϕdt=−N1ωϕmcos⁡ωt=N1ωϕmsin⁡(ωt−90∘)\begin{aligned} e_1 &= -N_1\frac{d\phi}{dt} = -N_1\omega\phi_m\cos\omega t \\ &= N_1\omega\phi_m\sin(\omega t - 90^\circ) \end{aligned}

So e1e_1 lags φ by 90°. Its maximum value is

E1m=N1ωϕm=2πfN1ϕmE_{1m} = N_1\omega\phi_m = 2\pi f N_1\phi_m

RMS value:

E1=E1m2=2π2fN1ϕmE1=4.44 fN1ϕm=4.44 fN1BmA\begin{aligned} E_1 &= \frac{E_{1m}}{\sqrt2} = \frac{2\pi}{\sqrt2} f N_1 \phi_m \\ E_1 &= 4.44\, f N_1 \phi_m = 4.44\, f N_1 B_m A \end{aligned}

Similarly for the secondary:

E2=4.44 fN2ϕmE_2 = 4.44\, f N_2 \phi_m

Transformation ratio

E2E1=N2N1=K,E1N1=E2N2=4.44fϕm (emf per turn)\frac{E_2}{E_1} = \frac{N_2}{N_1} = K, \qquad \frac{E_1}{N_1} = \frac{E_2}{N_2} = 4.44 f\phi_m \ (\text{emf per turn})

For an ideal transformer V1=E1V_1 = E_1, V2=E2V_2 = E_2 and I1/I2=N2/N1=KI_1/I_2 = N_2/N_1 = K.

Example: a 50 Hz transformer with N1=500N_1 = 500 and ϕm=9\phi_m = 9 mWb gives E1=4.44×50×500×0.009=999E_1 = 4.44\times50\times500\times0.009 = 999 V.

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

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