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Frequency derivative property; t·e^(−at)u(t)

Short answer

Frequency derivative property: t·x(t) ↔ j dX(jω)/dω. Proof: differentiate X(jω)=∫ x(t)e^{-jωt}dt to get dX/dω = ∫[-jt x(t)]e^{-jωt}dt. For x(t)=t e^{-at}u(t), X(jω)=j d/dω[1/(a+jω)] = 1/(a+jω)^2.

State and prove frequency derivative property of fourier transform. Use same property to find fourier transform of x(t) = t·exp(−a·t)u(t), a > 0

Frequency derivative (differentiation in frequency) property

Statement: If x(t)↔X(jω)x(t) \leftrightarrow X(j\omega), then

−jt x(t)  ⟷  dX(jω)dωort x(t)  ⟷  jdX(jω)dω-jt\,x(t) \;\longleftrightarrow\; \frac{dX(j\omega)}{d\omega} \qquad\text{or}\qquad t\,x(t) \;\longleftrightarrow\; j\frac{dX(j\omega)}{d\omega}

Proof: Start from the definition

X(jω)=∫−∞∞x(t) e−jωt dtX(j\omega) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x(t)\,e^{-j\omega t}\,dt

Differentiate both sides with respect to ω\omega (the derivative can be taken inside the integral):

dX(jω)dω=∫−∞∞x(t) ddω(e−jωt)dt=∫−∞∞[−jt x(t)]e−jωt dt\begin{aligned} \frac{dX(j\omega)}{d\omega} &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x(t)\,\frac{d}{d\omega}\left(e^{-j\omega t}\right)dt \\ &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \left[-jt\,x(t)\right]e^{-j\omega t}\,dt \end{aligned}

The right side is the FT of −jt x(t)-jt\,x(t). Multiplying both sides by jj gives t x(t)↔j dX(jω)dωt\,x(t) \leftrightarrow j\,\frac{dX(j\omega)}{d\omega}. Hence proved.

FT of x(t)=t e−atu(t)x(t) = t\,e^{-at}u(t), a>0a>0

Let x1(t)=e−atu(t)x_1(t) = e^{-at}u(t). Its FT is

X1(jω)=∫0∞e−(a+jω)tdt=1a+jωX_1(j\omega) = \int_0^\infty e^{-(a+j\omega)t}dt = \frac{1}{a+j\omega}

Now x(t)=t x1(t)x(t) = t\,x_1(t), so by the property:

X(jω)=jddω[1a+jω]=j⋅−j(a+jω)2=1(a+jω)2\begin{aligned} X(j\omega) &= j\frac{d}{d\omega}\left[\frac{1}{a+j\omega}\right] \\ &= j\cdot\frac{-j}{(a+j\omega)^2} \\ &= \frac{1}{(a+j\omega)^2} \end{aligned}

Answer: t e−atu(t)  ⟷  1(a+jω)2t\,e^{-at}u(t) \;\longleftrightarrow\; \dfrac{1}{(a+j\omega)^2}, with ∣X(jω)∣=1a2+ω2|X(j\omega)| = \dfrac{1}{a^2+\omega^2} and ∠X(jω)=−2tan⁡−1(ω/a)\angle X(j\omega) = -2\tan^{-1}(\omega/a).

Check: X(0)=1/a2X(0) = 1/a^2, and the area ∫0∞te−atdt=1/a2\int_0^\infty t e^{-at}dt = 1/a^2. They match.

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

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