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Rayleigh energy theorem

Short answer

Rayleigh energy theorem states total energy E equals integral of |x(t)|^2 dt and also integral of |X(f)|^2 df. Proof: substitute the inverse Fourier transform for x*(t), interchange integration order, and identify the inner integral as X(f), giving integral |X(f)|^2 df.

State and prove Rayleigh energy theorem for a given energy signal x(t).

Statement

Rayleigh's energy theorem (Parseval's theorem for energy signals) states that the total energy of a signal x(t)x(t) is the same whether calculated in the time domain or in the frequency domain:

E=∫−∞∞∣x(t)∣2 dt=∫−∞∞∣X(f)∣2 dfE = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} |x(t)|^2\,dt = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} |X(f)|^2\,df

where X(f)X(f) is the Fourier transform of x(t)x(t). ∣X(f)∣2|X(f)|^2 is the energy spectral density.

Proof

Write ∣x(t)∣2=x(t) x∗(t)|x(t)|^2 = x(t)\,x^*(t) and express x∗(t)x^*(t) through the inverse Fourier transform:

x(t)=∫−∞∞X(f)ej2πft df  ⇒  x∗(t)=∫−∞∞X∗(f)e−j2πft dfx(t) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} X(f)e^{j2\pi ft}\,df \;\Rightarrow\; x^*(t) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} X^*(f)e^{-j2\pi ft}\,df

Then

E=∫−∞∞x(t) x∗(t) dt=∫−∞∞x(t)[∫−∞∞X∗(f)e−j2πft df]dt\begin{aligned} E &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x(t)\,x^*(t)\,dt \\ &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x(t)\left[\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} X^*(f)e^{-j2\pi ft}\,df\right]dt \end{aligned}

Interchange the order of integration:

E=∫−∞∞X∗(f)[∫−∞∞x(t)e−j2πft dt]df=∫−∞∞X∗(f) X(f) df=∫−∞∞∣X(f)∣2 df\begin{aligned} E &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} X^*(f)\left[\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x(t)e^{-j2\pi ft}\,dt\right]df \\ &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} X^*(f)\,X(f)\,df \\ &= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} |X(f)|^2\,df \end{aligned}

since the bracket is the definition of X(f)X(f). Hence proved.

Example

For x(t)=e−atu(t)x(t) = e^{-at}u(t), a>0a > 0:

  • Time domain: E=∫0∞e−2atdt=12aE = \int_0^\infty e^{-2at}dt = \frac{1}{2a}.
  • Frequency domain: X(f)=1a+j2πfX(f) = \frac{1}{a + j2\pi f}, ∣X(f)∣2=1a2+4π2f2|X(f)|^2 = \frac{1}{a^2 + 4\pi^2f^2}, and ∫−∞∞dfa2+4π2f2=12πa⋅π=12a\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{df}{a^2+4\pi^2f^2} = \frac{1}{2\pi a}\cdot\pi = \frac{1}{2a}.

Both give the same energy.

Use: the theorem lets us find energy in a band of frequencies, e.g. the bandwidth that contains 90% or 99% of the signal energy.

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

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