- 2072 Asoj · 4 marks
General procedure for after-tax analysis
Short answer
Convert BTCF to ATCF by subtracting income tax: compute taxable income as revenue minus operating costs minus depreciation, apply tax rate, and adjust for salvage tax effects. Then compute PW, AW, or IRR at the after-tax MARR. Example: ATCF Rs 40,000/yr gave PW > 0, making the project acceptable.
Explain the general procedure for after tax economic analysis with suitable example.
After-tax analysis converts before-tax cash flows into after-tax cash flows (ATCF) and then applies PW, AW or IRR at the after-tax MARR.
General procedure
- Estimate the before-tax cash flows (BTCF): investment, revenues, O&M costs and salvage value.
- Choose the depreciation method (SL, DB, SOYD, MACRS) and compute depreciation for each year.
- Compute taxable income = revenue − O&M expenses − depreciation (− interest if debt financed).
- Compute income tax = taxable income × tax rate (a negative value is a tax saving if the firm has other taxable income).
- Compute ATCF = BTCF − income tax. Add the tax effect of disposal: gain on sale (selling price − book value) is taxed; a loss gives a tax saving.
- Draw the ATCF diagram and calculate PW, AW or IRR using the after-tax MARR.
- Accept if PW ≥ 0 (or after-tax IRR ≥ MARR); for alternatives choose the best by the usual method.
Example
A machine costs Rs 1,00,000, lasts 4 years with zero salvage value, and gives Rs 50,000 per year before tax. Tax rate = 40%; SL depreciation; after-tax MARR = 8%.
Depreciation = 1,00,000 / 4 = 25,000
Taxable income = 50,000 − 25,000 = 25,000
Tax = 0.40 × 25,000 = 10,000
ATCF = 50,000 − 10,000 = 40,000 per year (years 1 to 4)
PW = −1,00,000 + 40,000(P/A,8%,4) = −1,00,000 + 40,000(3.3121) ≈ +32,485
PW > 0, so the project is acceptable after tax. (Before-tax cash flow 50,000 gives PW = +65,606, which shows how tax reduces the return.)
✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)
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