Skip to main content

Ideal transformer no-load and loaded, ratios

Short answer

Under no-load, V1 = -E1 = N1 dφ/dt, V2 = N2 dφ/dt, so V1/V2 = N1/N2. On load, mmf balance N1 I1 = N2 I2 (neglecting magnetizing current) gives I1/I2 = N2/N1. Therefore voltage ratio equals turns ratio, current ratio is inverse.

Explain the working of an ideal transformer under (i) no-load and (ii) loaded conditions and derive expressions for voltage and current ratios relating to transformer turns ratio.

An ideal transformer has no resistance, no leakage flux, no core loss, and a core of infinite permeability.

(i) No-load operation

   I1 ~ 0     N1 : N2     I2 = 0
 o---->--+   ||     ||   +---o
         )   ||     ||   (        
  V1     )   ||core ||   (  V2 (open)
 o-------+   ||     ||   +---o

The secondary is open, so I2=0I_2 = 0. A sinusoidal voltage V1V_1 on the primary draws a very small magnetising current IμI_\mu, which creates the alternating flux ϕ=ϕmsin⁡ωt\phi = \phi_m\sin\omega t in the core. This flux links both windings and induces:

e1=−N1dϕdt,e2=−N2dϕdte_1 = -N_1\frac{d\phi}{dt},\qquad e_2 = -N_2\frac{d\phi}{dt}

In an ideal transformer V1=E1V_1 = E_1 and V2=E2V_2 = E_2. Dividing,

V1V2=E1E2=N1N2=a\frac{V_1}{V_2} = \frac{E_1}{E_2} = \frac{N_1}{N_2} = a

where aa is the turns ratio.

(ii) Loaded operation

When a load is connected, the secondary current I2I_2 flows and its mmf N2I2N_2I_2 opposes the flux. The flux would fall, so the primary draws an extra current I1I_1 to restore it, until the two mmfs balance (neglecting IμI_\mu):

N1I1=N2I2⇒I1I2=N2N1=1aN_1I_1 = N_2I_2 \Rightarrow \frac{I_1}{I_2} = \frac{N_2}{N_1} = \frac{1}{a}

Since there are no losses, the power in equals the power out:

V1I1=V2I2⇒V1V2=I2I1V_1I_1 = V_2I_2 \Rightarrow \frac{V_1}{V_2} = \frac{I_2}{I_1}

Results

V1V2=E1E2=N1N2=I2I1\boxed{\frac{V_1}{V_2} = \frac{E_1}{E_2} = \frac{N_1}{N_2} = \frac{I_2}{I_1}}

The voltage ratio equals the turns ratio, and the current ratio is its inverse. In phasor terms, V1V_1 leads the flux by 90° (in the sign convention V1=−E1V_1 = -E_1), and on load I1I_1 and V1V_1 have the same phase angle ϕ\phi as I2I_2 and V2V_2.

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

All Electrical Machines chapter 2 questions →