Skip to main content

Chapter 2 · 8 hours

Transformer

IOE past exam questions

Past questions and answers

47 questions set from this chapter, 4 of them more than once; 2 are most repeated (set, or a close variant set, in 3 or more exams). Most repeated first.

  • Most repeated · 4 of 21 exams
  • Asked 4 times
  • 2077 Chaitra · 8 marks
  • 2075 Baisakh (old course) · 5+3 marks
  • 2068 Bhadra · 8 marks
  • 2066 Magh (old course) · 8 marks

What are the different types of losses in a transformer? Derive the condition for maximum efficiency of the transformer.

Answer

Losses in a transformer

A transformer has no moving parts, so there are only two kinds of loss.

  1. Core (iron) losses PiP_i: present whenever the primary is energised at rated voltage and frequency. They are practically constant from no load to full load.
    • Hysteresis loss: Ph=ηBmax1.6fVP_h = \eta B_{max}^{1.6} f V, from the repeated reversal of magnetisation. It is reduced by using silicon steel.
    • Eddy current loss: Pe∝Bmax2f2t2P_e \propto B_{max}^2 f^2 t^2, from currents induced in the core. It is reduced by thin insulated laminations.
  2. Copper losses PcuP_{cu}: I12R1+I22R2=I22R02I_1^2R_1 + I_2^2R_2 = I_2^2R_{02} in the windings. They vary as the square of the load current.

Stray (leakage flux) and dielectric losses are small and usually ignored.

Condition for maximum efficiency

Let the load current be I2I_2, secondary voltage V2V_2 (assumed constant), power factor cos⁡ϕ2\cos\phi_2 and R02R_{02} the total resistance referred to the secondary.

η=V2I2cos⁡ϕ2V2I2cos⁡ϕ2+Pi+I22R02\eta = \frac{V_2I_2\cos\phi_2}{V_2I_2\cos\phi_2 + P_i + I_2^2R_{02}}

Divide numerator and denominator by I2I_2:

η=V2cos⁡ϕ2V2cos⁡ϕ2+PiI2+I2R02\eta = \frac{V_2\cos\phi_2}{V_2\cos\phi_2 + \dfrac{P_i}{I_2} + I_2R_{02}}

For constant V2V_2 and cos⁡ϕ2\cos\phi_2, η\eta is maximum when the denominator is minimum:

ddI2(PiI2+I2R02)=0⇒−PiI22+R02=0\frac{d}{dI_2}\left(\frac{P_i}{I_2} + I_2R_{02}\right) = 0 \Rightarrow -\frac{P_i}{I_2^2} + R_{02} = 0 Pi=I22R02P_i = I_2^2R_{02}

Condition: efficiency is maximum when the variable (copper) loss equals the constant (iron) loss.

Load at maximum efficiency, with Pcu,flP_{cu,fl} the full-load copper loss:

x=I2I2,fl=PiPcu,fl,kVA at max η=rated kVA×PiPcu,flx = \frac{I_2}{I_{2,fl}} = \sqrt{\frac{P_i}{P_{cu,fl}}},\qquad \text{kVA at max } \eta = \text{rated kVA}\times\sqrt{\frac{P_i}{P_{cu,fl}}}

The second derivative is positive, so this is a minimum of the denominator and a maximum of η\eta. The condition does not depend on the power factor, but the value of the maximum efficiency is higher at a higher power factor.

  • Most repeated · 3 of 21 exams
  • Asked 3 times
  • 2077 Chaitra · 8 marks
  • 2073 Bhadra (old course) · 8 marks
  • 2069 Bhadra

Explain the no-load and loaded operation of an ideal transformer. Prove that the net magnetic flux in the core remains constant irrespective of the change in load.

Answer

An ideal transformer has no winding resistance, no leakage flux, no core loss and infinite core permeability, so it needs no magnetising current.

No-load operation

The secondary is open. The primary is connected to a sinusoidal supply V1V_1.

  I1=0      +------+      I2=0
 o--->---+  |||||||  +--- o
  V1     ) core     (  E2   open
 o-------+  |||||||  +--- o
         N1         N2
  • The primary current is only the tiny magnetising current IμI_\mu which sets up the core flux ϕ\phi (taken as zero for an ideal one).
  • The flux induces E1=−N1 dϕ/dtE_1 = -N_1\,d\phi/dt in the primary. For an ideal transformer E1=V1E_1 = V_1 (equal and opposite).
  • The same flux links the secondary, so E2=V2=−N2 dϕ/dtE_2 = V_2 = -N_2\,d\phi/dt and V1V2=N1N2\dfrac{V_1}{V_2} = \dfrac{N_1}{N_2}.

Loaded operation

A load is connected on the secondary and a current I2I_2 flows.

  • I2I_2 sets up a secondary mmf N2I2N_2I_2 which tends to oppose (by Lenz's law) the core flux.
  • The primary draws an extra current I1′I_1' so that its mmf N1I1′N_1I_1' cancels the secondary mmf:
N1I1′=N2I2⇒I1I2=N2N1N_1I_1' = N_2I_2 \Rightarrow \frac{I_1}{I_2} = \frac{N_2}{N_1}
  • The input power equals the output power, V1I1=V2I2V_1I_1 = V_2I_2.

Proof that the net flux remains constant

The primary equation gives V1≈E1=4.44fN1ϕmV_1 \approx E_1 = 4.44fN_1\phi_m. Since V1V_1 and ff are fixed by the supply, ϕm=V1/(4.44fN1)\phi_m = V_1/(4.44fN_1) is fixed, whatever the load.

Also, from the mmf balance, the net mmf acting on the core on load is:

Fnet=N1I1−N2I2=N1(Iμ+I1′)−N2I2=N1Iμ+(N1I1′−N2I2)=N1Iμ\begin{aligned} F_{net} &= N_1I_1 - N_2I_2 \\ &= N_1(I_\mu + I_1') - N_2I_2 \\ &= N_1I_\mu + (N_1I_1' - N_2I_2) = N_1I_\mu \end{aligned}

The net mmf is N1IμN_1I_\mu, the same as at no load. The core flux is ϕ=N1Iμ/S\phi = N_1I_\mu/S, so the flux is constant. Any load only adds the balancing component I1′I_1' in the primary, which cancels the secondary mmf and leaves the flux unchanged.

  • Asked 2 times
  • 2076 Baisakh · 8 marks
  • 2065 Chaitra (old course) · 4+4 marks

Define the efficiency of transformer and find the condition for maximum efficiency of transformer and the current at maximum efficiency.

Answer

Efficiency is the ratio of output power to input power for a transformer:

η=outputinput=outputoutput+Pi+Pcu\eta = \frac{\text{output}}{\text{input}} = \frac{\text{output}}{\text{output} + P_i + P_{cu}}

where PiP_i is the core loss (constant) and Pcu=I22R02P_{cu} = I_2^2R_{02} is the copper loss (varies as the square of the load).

For load current I2I_2, secondary voltage V2V_2 and power factor cos⁡ϕ2\cos\phi_2:

η=V2I2cos⁡ϕ2V2I2cos⁡ϕ2+Pi+I22R02\eta = \frac{V_2I_2\cos\phi_2}{V_2I_2\cos\phi_2 + P_i + I_2^2R_{02}}

Condition for maximum efficiency

Dividing by I2I_2 gives

η=V2cos⁡ϕ2V2cos⁡ϕ2+PiI2+I2R02\eta = \frac{V_2\cos\phi_2}{V_2\cos\phi_2 + \dfrac{P_i}{I_2} + I_2R_{02}}

With V2V_2 and cos⁡ϕ2\cos\phi_2 constant, η\eta is maximum when the denominator is minimum:

ddI2(PiI2+I2R02)=−PiI22+R02=0\frac{d}{dI_2}\left(\frac{P_i}{I_2} + I_2R_{02}\right) = -\frac{P_i}{I_2^2} + R_{02} = 0 Pi=I22R02⇒iron loss=copper lossP_i = I_2^2R_{02}\quad\Rightarrow\quad \text{iron loss} = \text{copper loss}

Current at maximum efficiency

I2,ηmax=PiR02I_{2,\eta max} = \sqrt{\frac{P_i}{R_{02}}}

In terms of the full-load current I2,flI_{2,fl} and full-load copper loss Pcu,fl=I2,fl2R02P_{cu,fl} = I_{2,fl}^2R_{02}:

I2,ηmax=I2,flPiPcu,flI_{2,\eta max} = I_{2,fl}\sqrt{\frac{P_i}{P_{cu,fl}}}

The corresponding kVA load is kVAηmax=kVAratedPi/Pcu,fl\text{kVA}_{\eta max} = \text{kVA}_{rated}\sqrt{P_i/P_{cu,fl}} and the maximum efficiency is

ηmax=V2I2cos⁡ϕ2V2I2cos⁡ϕ2+2Pi\eta_{max} = \frac{V_2I_2\cos\phi_2}{V_2I_2\cos\phi_2 + 2P_i}

Distribution transformers (on load all day) are designed with a small PiP_i so that maximum efficiency occurs near the usual load, which is below full load.

  • Asked 2 times
  • 2071 Magh · 4+4 marks
  • 2070 Magh · 8 marks

Explain the working of an ideal transformer under (i) no-load and (ii) loaded conditions and derive expressions for voltage and current ratios relating to transformer turns ratio.

Answer

An ideal transformer has no resistance, no leakage flux, no core loss, and a core of infinite permeability.

(i) No-load operation

   I1 ~ 0     N1 : N2     I2 = 0
 o---->--+   ||     ||   +---o
         )   ||     ||   (        
  V1     )   ||core ||   (  V2 (open)
 o-------+   ||     ||   +---o

The secondary is open, so I2=0I_2 = 0. A sinusoidal voltage V1V_1 on the primary draws a very small magnetising current IμI_\mu, which creates the alternating flux ϕ=ϕmsin⁡ωt\phi = \phi_m\sin\omega t in the core. This flux links both windings and induces:

e1=−N1dϕdt,e2=−N2dϕdte_1 = -N_1\frac{d\phi}{dt},\qquad e_2 = -N_2\frac{d\phi}{dt}

In an ideal transformer V1=E1V_1 = E_1 and V2=E2V_2 = E_2. Dividing,

V1V2=E1E2=N1N2=a\frac{V_1}{V_2} = \frac{E_1}{E_2} = \frac{N_1}{N_2} = a

where aa is the turns ratio.

(ii) Loaded operation

When a load is connected, the secondary current I2I_2 flows and its mmf N2I2N_2I_2 opposes the flux. The flux would fall, so the primary draws an extra current I1I_1 to restore it, until the two mmfs balance (neglecting IμI_\mu):

N1I1=N2I2⇒I1I2=N2N1=1aN_1I_1 = N_2I_2 \Rightarrow \frac{I_1}{I_2} = \frac{N_2}{N_1} = \frac{1}{a}

Since there are no losses, the power in equals the power out:

V1I1=V2I2⇒V1V2=I2I1V_1I_1 = V_2I_2 \Rightarrow \frac{V_1}{V_2} = \frac{I_2}{I_1}

Results

V1V2=E1E2=N1N2=I2I1\boxed{\frac{V_1}{V_2} = \frac{E_1}{E_2} = \frac{N_1}{N_2} = \frac{I_2}{I_1}}

The voltage ratio equals the turns ratio, and the current ratio is its inverse. In phasor terms, V1V_1 leads the flux by 90° (in the sign convention V1=−E1V_1 = -E_1), and on load I1I_1 and V1V_1 have the same phase angle ϕ\phi as I2I_2 and V2V_2.

  • 2072 Asoj

A 20 kVA, 250 V/2500 V, 50 Hz single phase transformer gave the following test results: No-load test (on L.V. side): 250 V, 1.4 A, 105 watts Short circuit test (on H.V. side): 120 V, 8 A, 320 watts Calculate the equivalent circuit parameters referred to primary side and draw the equivalent circuit.

Similar questions: 25 kVA 250/2500 V tests, equivalent circuit (2071 Magh (old course))

Answer

Given: 20 kVA, 250 V/2500 V. Primary = LV (250 V), secondary = HV (2500 V), K=10K = 10, K2=100K^2 = 100.

Open-circuit test (on the LV side)

The no-load power is almost entirely core loss, so the shunt branch is found from it.

cos⁡ϕ0=P0V0I0=105250×1.4=0.3Iw=I0cos⁡ϕ0=0.42 A,Iμ=I02−Iw2=1.336 AR0=V0Iw=595.2 Ω,X0=V0Iμ=187.2 Ω(on the LV side)\begin{aligned} \cos\phi_0 &= \frac{P_0}{V_0I_0} = \frac{105}{250\times1.4} = 0.3 \\ I_w &= I_0\cos\phi_0 = 0.42\ \text{A},\qquad I_\mu = \sqrt{I_0^2 - I_w^2} = 1.336\ \text{A} \\ R_0 &= \frac{V_0}{I_w} = 595.2\ \Omega,\qquad X_0 = \frac{V_0}{I_\mu} = 187.2\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the LV side}) \end{aligned}

Short-circuit test (on the HV side)

At the reduced test voltage the core loss is negligible, so the wattmeter reading is the copper loss.

Zsc=VscIsc=1208=15 ΩRsc=PscIsc2=32082=5 ΩXsc=Zsc2−Rsc2=14.14 Ω(on the HV side)\begin{aligned} Z_{sc} &= \frac{V_{sc}}{I_{sc}} = \frac{120}{8} = 15\ \Omega \\ R_{sc} &= \frac{P_{sc}}{I_{sc}^2} = \frac{320}{8^2} = 5\ \Omega \\ X_{sc} &= \sqrt{Z_{sc}^2 - R_{sc}^2} = 14.14\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the HV side}) \end{aligned}

Referring to the LV side

The turns ratio is K=2500/250=10K = 2500/250 = 10, so K2=100K^2 = 100. Impedances are multiplied by K2K^2 when moved from LV to HV, and divided by K2K^2 when moved from HV to LV.

Req=5÷100=0.05 ΩXeq=14.14÷100=0.1414 Ω\begin{aligned} R_{eq} &= 5 \div 100 = 0.05\ \Omega \\ X_{eq} &= 14.14 \div 100 = 0.1414\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Equivalent circuit referred to the LV side

   Req=0.05 ohm   Xeq=0.141 ohm
 o--+-----/\/\/\-----UUUU------o
    |                          
   [R0=595.2] [X0=187.2]   Load
    |      (in parallel)
 o--+---------------------------o

Req=0.05 ΩR_{eq} = 0.05\ \Omega, Xeq=0.1414 ΩX_{eq} = 0.1414\ \Omega (Zeq=0.15 ΩZ_{eq} = 0.15\ \Omega), shunt branch R0=595.2 ΩR_0 = 595.2\ \Omega in parallel with X0=187.2 ΩX_0 = 187.2\ \Omega.

Answer (referred to primary): R0=595.2 ΩR_0 = 595.2\ \Omega, X0=187.2 ΩX_0 = 187.2\ \Omega, R01=0.05 ΩR_{01} = 0.05\ \Omega, X01=0.1414 ΩX_{01} = 0.1414\ \Omega.

  • 2071 Magh (old course) · 8 marks

A 25 kVA, 250 V/2500 V, 50 Hz single phase transformer gave the following test results: No load test (on L.V. side): 250 V, 1.4 A, 105 watts Short circuit test (on H.V. side): 120 V, 8 A, 320 watts Calculate the equivalent circuit parameters referred to primary side and draw the equivalent circuit.

Similar questions: 20 kVA 250/2500 V tests, equivalent circuit (2072 Asoj)

Answer

Given: 25 kVA, 250 V/2500 V. Primary = LV (250 V), secondary = HV (2500 V), K=10K = 10, K2=100K^2 = 100.

Open-circuit test (on the LV side)

The no-load power is almost entirely core loss, so the shunt branch is found from it.

cos⁡ϕ0=P0V0I0=105250×1.4=0.3Iw=I0cos⁡ϕ0=0.42 A,Iμ=I02−Iw2=1.336 AR0=V0Iw=595.2 Ω,X0=V0Iμ=187.2 Ω(on the LV side)\begin{aligned} \cos\phi_0 &= \frac{P_0}{V_0I_0} = \frac{105}{250\times1.4} = 0.3 \\ I_w &= I_0\cos\phi_0 = 0.42\ \text{A},\qquad I_\mu = \sqrt{I_0^2 - I_w^2} = 1.336\ \text{A} \\ R_0 &= \frac{V_0}{I_w} = 595.2\ \Omega,\qquad X_0 = \frac{V_0}{I_\mu} = 187.2\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the LV side}) \end{aligned}

Short-circuit test (on the HV side)

At the reduced test voltage the core loss is negligible, so the wattmeter reading is the copper loss.

Zsc=VscIsc=1208=15 ΩRsc=PscIsc2=32082=5 ΩXsc=Zsc2−Rsc2=14.14 Ω(on the HV side)\begin{aligned} Z_{sc} &= \frac{V_{sc}}{I_{sc}} = \frac{120}{8} = 15\ \Omega \\ R_{sc} &= \frac{P_{sc}}{I_{sc}^2} = \frac{320}{8^2} = 5\ \Omega \\ X_{sc} &= \sqrt{Z_{sc}^2 - R_{sc}^2} = 14.14\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the HV side}) \end{aligned}

Referring to the LV side

The turns ratio is K=2500/250=10K = 2500/250 = 10, so K2=100K^2 = 100. Impedances are multiplied by K2K^2 when moved from LV to HV, and divided by K2K^2 when moved from HV to LV.

Req=5÷100=0.05 ΩXeq=14.14÷100=0.1414 Ω\begin{aligned} R_{eq} &= 5 \div 100 = 0.05\ \Omega \\ X_{eq} &= 14.14 \div 100 = 0.1414\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Equivalent circuit referred to the LV side

   Req=0.05 ohm   Xeq=0.141 ohm
 o--+-----/\/\/\-----UUUU------o
    |                          
   [R0=595.2] [X0=187.2]   Load
    |      (in parallel)
 o--+---------------------------o

Req=0.05 ΩR_{eq} = 0.05\ \Omega, Xeq=0.1414 ΩX_{eq} = 0.1414\ \Omega (Zeq=0.15 ΩZ_{eq} = 0.15\ \Omega), shunt branch R0=595.2 ΩR_0 = 595.2\ \Omega in parallel with X0=187.2 ΩX_0 = 187.2\ \Omega.

Answer (referred to primary): R0=595.2 ΩR_0 = 595.2\ \Omega, X0=187.2 ΩX_0 = 187.2\ \Omega, R01=0.05 ΩR_{01} = 0.05\ \Omega, X01=0.1414 ΩX_{01} = 0.1414\ \Omega.

Note: the 25 kVA rating is not needed for the parameters. The SC test current of 8 A is the rated HV current only for a 20 kVA unit (a 25 kVA unit has 10 A on the HV side), so the test is below full load. The equivalent circuit parameters are the same, because they do not depend on the test current if the transformer is linear. The copper loss at the true full load would be 320×(10/8)2=500320\times(10/8)^2 = 500 W.

  • 2071 Bhadra · 8 marks

What are different types of losses in transformer? Derive the expression of efficiency of transformer.

Answer

Losses in a transformer

LossCauseNature
Hysteresis Ph=ηBmax1.6fVP_h = \eta B_{max}^{1.6} f VRepeated reversal of core magnetisationConstant (fixed VV, ff)
Eddy current Pe∝Bmax2f2t2P_e \propto B_{max}^2f^2t^2Currents induced in the coreConstant
Copper I12R1+I22R2I_1^2R_1 + I_2^2R_2Resistance of the windingsVaries as (load current)2^2

The first two together are the iron (core) loss PiP_i. Stray load loss and dielectric loss are small and neglected. Because there is no rotating part, there is no friction or windage loss.

Expression for efficiency

η=output powerinput power=outputoutput+losses\eta = \frac{\text{output power}}{\text{input power}} = \frac{\text{output}}{\text{output} + \text{losses}}

For a load that takes a fraction xx of the full-load current, at power factor cos⁡ϕ\cos\phi and rated secondary voltage V2V_2:

Output=x Scos⁡ϕ(S=V2I2,fl rated VA)Pcu=x2Pcu,flLosses=Pi+x2Pcu,fl\begin{aligned} \text{Output} &= x\,S\cos\phi\quad (S = V_2I_{2,fl}\ \text{rated VA}) \\ P_{cu} &= x^2P_{cu,fl} \\ \text{Losses} &= P_i + x^2P_{cu,fl} \end{aligned} η=xScos⁡ϕxScos⁡ϕ+Pi+x2Pcu,fl×100%\boxed{\eta = \frac{xS\cos\phi}{xS\cos\phi + P_i + x^2P_{cu,fl}}\times100\%}

Remarks:

  • Efficiency is zero at no load, rises with load, reaches a maximum when Pi=x2Pcu,flP_i = x^2P_{cu,fl}, and then falls.
  • For a good power transformer η\eta is 95 to 99%.
  • The efficiency is higher at a higher power factor, since the output power is larger for the same losses.
  • 2070 Bhadra · 4 marks

The flux in transformer remains practically constant from no load to full load. Justify the statement.

Answer

The core flux of a transformer is fixed by the primary applied voltage, not by the load. Therefore it stays practically constant from no load to full load.

Reason 1: voltage balance in the primary

V1=E1+I1Z1≈E1=4.44fN1ϕmV_1 = E_1 + I_1Z_1 \approx E_1 = 4.44fN_1\phi_m

The primary impedance drop I1Z1I_1Z_1 is only 1 to 3% of V1V_1 at full load. Since the supply V1V_1 and ff are constant, ϕm=V14.44fN1\phi_m = \dfrac{V_1}{4.44fN_1} stays practically constant.

Reason 2: mmf balance

When a load current I2I_2 flows, its mmf N2I2N_2I_2 tends to reduce the flux. The primary current immediately increases by I1′I_1', so that

N1I1′=N2I2N_1I_1' = N_2I_2

The net mmf in the core is then again N1IμN_1I_\mu, the no-load value, so the flux does not change.

Conclusion: the only change in flux comes from the small primary leakage drop, which is about 1 to 3% at full load. Because the flux is constant, the core (iron) loss is constant at all loads, and the no-load core loss can be taken as the core loss at full load.

  • 2072 Asoj

Explain the operating principle of an ideal transformer and derive the emf equation.

Answer

Operating principle

A transformer works on mutual induction. Two windings (primary of N1N_1 turns, secondary of N2N_2 turns) are wound on a common laminated core. An alternating voltage on the primary sends a current that sets up an alternating flux ϕ\phi in the core. This flux links the secondary and, by Faraday's law, induces an emf in it. Energy is transferred from primary to secondary at the same frequency, with voltage and current changed in the ratio of turns.

An ideal transformer has no winding resistance, no leakage flux, no core loss, and a core of infinite permeability.

        core (laminated)
     +--------------------+
  ~  |  N1            N2  |  load
 V1  |  primary   secondary|  Z
     +--------------------+
        <----- flux ----->

emf equation

Let the flux be ϕ=ϕmsin⁡ωt\phi = \phi_m\sin\omega t, where ϕm\phi_m is the maximum flux (Wb).

e1=−N1dϕdt=−N1ωϕmcos⁡ωtEm1=N1ωϕm=2πfN1ϕm\begin{aligned} e_1 &= -N_1\frac{d\phi}{dt} = -N_1\omega\phi_m\cos\omega t \\ E_{m1} &= N_1\omega\phi_m = 2\pi fN_1\phi_m \end{aligned}

The rms value is

E1=Em12=2π2fN1ϕm=4.44 fN1ϕmE_1 = \frac{E_{m1}}{\sqrt2} = \frac{2\pi}{\sqrt2}fN_1\phi_m = 4.44\,fN_1\phi_m

Similarly,

E2=4.44 fN2ϕmE_2 = 4.44\,fN_2\phi_m E1=4.44fN1ϕm=4.44fN1BmA V,E1E2=N1N2\boxed{E_1 = 4.44fN_1\phi_m = 4.44fN_1B_mA\ \text{V},\qquad \frac{E_1}{E_2} = \frac{N_1}{N_2}}

where BmB_m is the maximum flux density and AA the core cross-section. The induced emf lags the flux by 90°. For the ideal case V1=E1V_1 = E_1 and V2=E2V_2 = E_2, hence V1/V2=N1/N2=aV_1/V_2 = N_1/N_2 = a.

  • 2068 Magh · 8 marks

Explain the transformer on load and no load with the phasor diagram of resistive and capacitive load.

Answer

A practical transformer has winding resistances R1,R2R_1, R_2, leakage reactances X1,X2X_1, X_2 and a core that draws an exciting current I0I_0.

No-load operation

The secondary is open (I2=0I_2 = 0). The primary draws only I0I_0, which has two components:

I0=Ic+Iμ,Ic=I0cos⁡ϕ0 (core loss),Iμ=I0sin⁡ϕ0 (magnetising)I_0 = I_c + I_\mu,\qquad I_c = I_0\cos\phi_0\ (\text{core loss}),\qquad I_\mu = I_0\sin\phi_0\ (\text{magnetising})
              -E1 (= V1 approx)
                 ^
                 |       phi0 is about 75-80 deg
                 |
        Ic <-----+       Phasors with V1 as reference:
         \       |       Im lags V1 by 90 deg,
       I0 \      |       Ic is in phase with V1,
           \     |       flux phi is in phase with Im
            v    v
                Im
  • The flux ϕ\phi is in phase with IμI_\mu and lags V1V_1 by about 90°.
  • E1E_1 and E2E_2 lag ϕ\phi by 90°.
  • I0I_0 is small (2 to 5% of full-load current) and lags V1V_1 by ϕ0\phi_0, so the no-load power factor is low (0.1 to 0.2).

On load

The secondary current I2I_2 flows, and the primary takes the additional load component I1′=I2/aI_1' = I_2/a, so I1=I0+I1′I_1 = I_0 + I_1' (phasor sum). The voltage equations are

V1=−E1+I1(R1+jX1),V2=E2−I2(R2+jX2)V_1 = -E_1 + I_1(R_1 + jX_1),\qquad V_2 = E_2 - I_2(R_2 + jX_2)

Resistive load. I2I_2 is in phase with V2V_2. Draw E2E_2 as the sum of V2V_2, I2R2I_2R_2 (in phase with I2I_2) and I2X2I_2X_2 (90° ahead of I2I_2). So E2>V2E_2 > V_2 and the voltage falls on load. I1′I_1' is in phase with I2I_2 reversed, and I1I_1 is close to I1′I_1'. The primary power factor is nearly unity.

  Resistive load (phasors referred to secondary)

          E2
         /|
        / | I2X2
       /  |
      /___|______
      V2  I2R2    I2 along V2

Capacitive load. I2I_2 leads V2V_2 by ϕ2\phi_2. The drops I2R2I_2R_2 and I2X2I_2X_2 are drawn along and 90° ahead of I2I_2. As I2I_2 is now ahead of V2V_2, the drop I2X2I_2X_2 points partly opposite to V2V_2 and E2E_2 becomes smaller than V2V_2. So the secondary terminal voltage rises on load (negative regulation) when the leading power factor is low enough.

  Capacitive load

       I2 (leads V2)
        \
         \  I2X2 almost against V2
   E2 ----V2 (longer than E2)

In each case, I1I_1 is obtained as I0+I1′I_0 + I_1', and V1=−E1+I1(R1+jX1)V_1 = -E_1 + I_1(R_1 + jX_1) completes the primary diagram.

  • 2071 Magh (old course) · 8 marks

Explain the operation of transformer at different loading conditions (resistive, inductive, capacitive) showing their corresponding circuit diagram and phasor diagram.

Answer

The transformer is treated as a practical one with winding resistances R1,R2R_1,R_2 and leakage reactances X1,X2X_1,X_2. For any load, with the turns ratio a=N1/N2a = N_1/N_2:

V2=E2−I2(R2+jX2),I1=I0+I2a,V1=−E1+I1(R1+jX1)V_2 = E_2 - I_2(R_2 + jX_2),\qquad I_1 = I_0 + \frac{I_2}{a},\qquad V_1 = -E_1 + I_1(R_1 + jX_1)

Circuit diagram

 I1   R1   X1        R2   X2   I2
 o--/\/\--UUU--+  +--/\/\--UUU--o
               |  |             |
   V1     E1 ( )  ( ) E2        Z (load)
               |  |             |
 o-------------+--+-------------o
        ideal transformer N1:N2

Phasor diagrams (drawn with V2V_2 as the reference)

For each load, add to V2V_2 the drop I2R2I_2R_2 (parallel to I2I_2) and then I2X2I_2X_2 (90° ahead of I2I_2) to obtain E2E_2.

LoadI2I_2 w.r.t. V2V_2Resulting E2E_2Effect on secondary voltage
Resistive (cos⁡ϕ2=1\cos\phi_2 = 1)In phaseE2>V2E_2 > V_2 slightlySmall fall
Inductive (lagging)Lags by ϕ2\phi_2E2E_2 much larger than V2V_2Largest fall
Capacitive (leading)Leads by ϕ2\phi_2E2E_2 may be smaller than V2V_2Rise (negative regulation)
 Inductive          Resistive         Capacitive
 (I2 lags V2)       (I2 = V2)         (I2 leads V2)

   E2 (big)           E2                I2 /
   /|                 /|                  /
  / | I2X2           / | I2X2        E2 /__ V2 (> E2)
 /__|                /__|
 V2 I2R2             V2 I2R2
 (I2 below V2)      (I2 along V2)

Primary side: in each case, the load component I1′=I2/aI_1' = I_2/a has the same phase angle ϕ2\phi_2 relative to −E1-E_1 as I2I_2 has relative to E2E_2. It is added to the no-load current I0I_0 (which lags −E1-E_1 by about 78°) to give I1I_1. Then V1V_1 is the phasor sum of −E1-E_1, I1R1I_1R_1 and jI1X1jI_1X_1.

Result: the inductive load gives the poorest regulation, the resistive load an intermediate value, and a capacitive load can give a voltage rise. The primary power factor follows the load: lagging for an inductive load, nearly unity for a resistive load, and leading for a strongly capacitive load.

  • 2078 Poush · 2+6 marks

How practical transformer is different from ideal one? Explain with phasor diagram the operation of practical transformer when secondary is connected to load.

Answer

Practical vs ideal transformer

PointIdeal transformerPractical transformer
Winding resistanceZeroR1R_1, R2R_2 present (copper loss)
Leakage fluxNone (unity coupling)Leakage reactances X1X_1, X2X_2
Core permeabilityInfiniteFinite, needs magnetising current IμI_\mu
Core lossZeroHysteresis and eddy loss, current IcI_c
No-load currentZeroSmall I0=Ic+IμI_0 = I_c + I_\mu
Efficiency100%95 to 99%
Voltage regulationZeroNon-zero
V1/V2V_1/V_2Exactly N1/N2N_1/N_2Slightly different on load

Operation of a practical transformer on load

When load current I2I_2 flows, the secondary terminal voltage and primary current are given by

V2=E2−I2(R2+jX2),I1=I0+I1′,  I1′=N2N1I2,V1=−E1+I1(R1+jX1)V_2 = E_2 - I_2(R_2 + jX_2),\qquad I_1 = I_0 + I_1',\ \ I_1' = \frac{N_2}{N_1}I_2,\qquad V_1 = -E_1 + I_1(R_1 + jX_1)

Phasor diagram (inductive load, lagging ϕ2\phi_2):

          V1 (applied)
         /|
   I1X1/ |             Steps:
      /  | I1R1        1. Take flux phi as reference.
 -E1 /___|              2. E1, E2 lag phi by 90 deg.
     |                  3. I2 lags V2 by phi2.
     |  E2              4. E2 = V2 + I2R2 + jI2X2.
     |   \ I2X2         5. I1' = I2/a opposes the I2 mmf.
 phi |    \ I2R2        6. I1 = I0 + I1'.
     v     \V2          7. V1 = -E1 + I1R1 + jI1X1.

Steps in words:

  1. Draw the flux ϕ\phi as reference. The emfs E1E_1 and E2E_2 lag it by 90°, and −E1-E_1 is drawn opposite to E1E_1.
  2. Draw V2V_2, then I2I_2 lagging it by ϕ2\phi_2. Add I2R2I_2R_2 (parallel to I2I_2) and I2X2I_2X_2 (90° ahead) to reach E2E_2.
  3. The load component I1′I_1' is drawn opposite to I2I_2 (scaled by N2/N1N_2/N_1). The no-load current I0I_0 is drawn leading the flux by the hysteresis angle, with IμI_\mu along ϕ\phi and IcI_c along −E1-E_1.
  4. I1=I0+I1′I_1 = I_0 + I_1'. Add I1R1I_1R_1 and I1X1I_1X_1 to −E1-E_1 to get V1V_1.

The angle between V1V_1 and I1I_1 is the primary power factor angle ϕ1\phi_1, slightly different from ϕ2\phi_2 because of I0I_0 and the drops.

  • 2076 Baisakh · 8 marks

Define voltage regulation of a transformer. Derive an expression for voltage regulation if a transformer is loaded with an inductive load.

Answer

Voltage regulation is the change in secondary terminal voltage from no load to full load (at the same primary voltage and a given power factor), expressed as a fraction of the no-load voltage:

VR=E2−V2E2×100%\text{VR} = \frac{E_2 - V_2}{E_2}\times100\%

where E2E_2 is the no-load secondary voltage and V2V_2 the full-load terminal voltage.

Derivation (lagging power factor)

Refer all quantities to the secondary side: R02=R2+R1/a2R_{02} = R_2 + R_1/a^2 and X02=X2+X1/a2X_{02} = X_2 + X_1/a^2. With the exciting branch ignored, the circuit is a source E2E_2 in series with R02+jX02R_{02} + jX_{02}, feeding the load current I2I_2 at angle ϕ\phi lagging V2V_2.

 Phasor diagram (inductive load, V2 as reference)

                  E2
                 /|
         I2X02  / |
               /  |
          V2  /___|
   O--------->  I2R02
    \ phi
     \ I2 (lags V2)

Using V2V_2 as reference: V2=V2∠0°V_2 = V_2\angle0°, I2=I2∠−ϕI_2 = I_2\angle-\phi.

Eˉ2=Vˉ2+Iˉ2(R02+jX02)=(V2+I2R02cos⁡ϕ+I2X02sin⁡ϕ)+j(I2X02cos⁡ϕ−I2R02sin⁡ϕ)\begin{aligned} \bar E_2 &= \bar V_2 + \bar I_2(R_{02} + jX_{02}) \\ &= (V_2 + I_2R_{02}\cos\phi + I_2X_{02}\sin\phi) + j(I_2X_{02}\cos\phi - I_2R_{02}\sin\phi) \end{aligned}

The quadrature term is small, so

E2≈V2+I2R02cos⁡ϕ+I2X02sin⁡ϕE_2 \approx V_2 + I_2R_{02}\cos\phi + I_2X_{02}\sin\phi E2−V2=I2(R02cos⁡ϕ+X02sin⁡ϕ)E_2 - V_2 = I_2(R_{02}\cos\phi + X_{02}\sin\phi)

Hence

VR=I2R02cos⁡ϕ+I2X02sin⁡ϕE2×100%\boxed{\text{VR} = \frac{I_2R_{02}\cos\phi + I_2X_{02}\sin\phi}{E_2}\times100\%}

For the exact value: E2=(V2+I2R02cos⁡ϕ+I2X02sin⁡ϕ)2+(I2X02cos⁡ϕ−I2R02sin⁡ϕ)2E_2 = \sqrt{(V_2 + I_2R_{02}\cos\phi + I_2X_{02}\sin\phi)^2 + (I_2X_{02}\cos\phi - I_2R_{02}\sin\phi)^2}.

For a leading load, the sign of the X02sin⁡ϕX_{02}\sin\phi term changes (VR =I2(R02cos⁡ϕ−X02sin⁡ϕ)/E2= I_2(R_{02}\cos\phi - X_{02}\sin\phi)/E_2), and the regulation can become negative. The maximum regulation occurs when cos⁡ϕ=R02/Z02\cos\phi = R_{02}/Z_{02}.

  • 2071 Magh (old course) · 2+6 marks

What is meant by transformer inrush current? Discuss the term "doubling effect" in transformer in detail.

Answer

Inrush current is the large transient magnetising current drawn by a transformer when it is first connected to the supply. It can reach 5 to 10 times the full-load current (and up to 20 times for large units) and dies away in a few cycles to a few seconds.

Doubling effect

If the supply voltage is v=Vmsin⁡(ωt+θ)v = V_m\sin(\omega t + \theta), the flux needed in steady state is ϕ=−ϕmcos⁡(ωt+θ)\phi = -\phi_m\cos(\omega t + \theta), because flux lags voltage by 90°. At the instant of switching the flux cannot change suddenly, so it starts from the residual flux ϕr\phi_r and a decaying transient flux is added to the steady-state value.

Case: switching on at the instant when the supply voltage is zero (ωt=0\omega t = 0).

  • In steady state, the flux at this instant would be at its negative maximum (−ϕm-\phi_m).
  • But the core flux just before switching is the residual flux ϕr\phi_r (nearly zero, and it cannot change suddenly).
  • So the flux starts from ϕr≈0\phi_r \approx 0 and follows
ϕ=ϕr+ϕm(1−cos⁡ωt)\phi = \phi_r + \phi_m(1 - \cos\omega t)
  • Half a cycle later (ωt=π\omega t = \pi), the flux reaches
ϕmax=2ϕm+ϕr\phi_{max} = 2\phi_m + \phi_r

The peak flux is therefore about twice the normal peak, and with residual flux it can be more. This is the doubling effect.

 flux
  2phi_m |        .-.
         |      /     \
   phi_m |    /   steady-state  
         |  /  .-"-.
      0 -+-/-"------"-------> t
         voltage zero when switched

Consequence

  • A normal transformer is designed to work at a flux density near the knee of the BB–HH curve (about 1.5 to 1.7 T). Twice the flux drives the core deep into saturation, where permeability falls sharply.
  • A very large magnetising current is needed to produce this flux, and this is the inrush current. It has a high harmonic content (mainly second harmonic) and decays with the winding resistance.

Case: switching on at voltage maximum gives no transient: the flux starts at zero and is already at its steady-state value, so the inrush is minimal.

Effects and remedies: inrush can trip overcurrent relays and stress the windings. It is reduced by switching with a series resistor, point-on-wave closing, and harmonic restraint in differential relays.

  • 2075 Baisakh (old course) · 5+3 marks

Explain the different three phase transformer connections with neat sketch. Write their application also.

Answer

A three-phase transformer bank can be formed by three single-phase transformers or one three-phase unit. The primary and secondary windings can be connected in star (Y) or delta (Δ), giving four basic connections.

Let VLV_L be the primary line voltage, and a=N1/N2a = N_1/N_2 the turns ratio per phase.

1. Star–Star (Y–Y)

  A o--+--(N1)--+       a o--(N2)--+
  B o--+--(N1)--+ N     b o--(N2)--+ n
  C o--+--(N1)--+       c o--(N2)--+
  • Line voltage ratio VL1/VL2=aV_{L1}/V_{L2} = a. No phase shift between primary and secondary (0°).
  • Needs a neutral connection, otherwise unbalanced loads and third harmonic voltages cause trouble.
  • Applications: high-voltage, small-current transmission, where insulation per phase is lower; small distribution loads with neutral (4-wire).

2. Delta–Delta (Δ–Δ)

  Each primary phase winding between line terminals;
  same for the secondary (closed triangles).
  • VL1/VL2=aV_{L1}/V_{L2} = a. No phase shift (0°). Line current = 3×\sqrt3\times phase current.
  • Third harmonics circulate in the delta and are suppressed. If one transformer fails, the other two can supply 58% of the load in open delta (V–V).
  • Applications: large low and medium-voltage industrial loads where continuity and balanced loads are needed.

3. Star–Delta (Y–Δ)

  • VL1/VL2=3 aV_{L1}/V_{L2} = \sqrt3\,a, with a 30° phase shift (secondary lags primary by 30°).
  • Stepping down: the star primary has a lower phase voltage so less insulation is required.
  • Applications: step-down transformers at the receiving end of a transmission line, and generator transformers' LV side.

4. Delta–Star (Δ–Y)

  • VL2/VL1=3/aV_{L2}/V_{L1} = \sqrt3/a (step-up), with a 30° shift. The star secondary gives a neutral.
  • Applications: step-up transformers at the generating station and distribution transformers (11 kV/415 V, Dyn11), giving a 4-wire supply. The delta suppresses third harmonic currents.

Comparison

ConnectionLine ratioPhase shiftTypical use
Y–Yaa0°HV transmission
Δ–Δaa0°Industrial loads
Y–Δ3a\sqrt3a30°Step-down
Δ–YVL2/VL1=3/aV_{L2}/V_{L1} = \sqrt3/a30°Step-up, distribution

Other connections: open-delta (V–V) for 58% capacity, Scott connection for 3-phase to 2-phase conversion, and zig-zag for earthing.

  • 2074 Bhadra (old course)

Draw the equivalent circuit of a transformer with their parameters as it is in primary side and secondary side. How all parameters can be transferred to primary side - explain with mathematical derivation.

Answer

An equivalent circuit replaces the magnetically coupled windings by an electric network that has the same terminal behaviour. Winding resistance and leakage reactance are put in series and the core is represented by a shunt branch.

Equivalent circuit (ideal transformer N1:N2N_1:N_2 in the centre)

   R1     X1                R2      X2
 o-/\/\--UUU--+---+----+--/\/\--UUU--o
              |   |    |  ideal      
  V1        Rc   Xm    ) N1:N2 (       V2   Load
              |   |    |             
 o------------+---+----+-------------o
  • R1,X1R_1, X_1: primary resistance and leakage reactance. R2,X2R_2, X_2: secondary values.
  • RcR_c: core-loss resistance. XmX_m: magnetising reactance, with Ic=V1/RcI_c = V_1/R_c and Iμ=V1/XmI_\mu = V_1/X_m (both form I0I_0).
  • a=N1/N2a = N_1/N_2.

Referring all parameters to the primary side

Energy in each element must remain the same after referring. Secondary quantities are referred to the primary as follows:

V2′=aV2,I2′=I2aV_2' = aV_2,\qquad I_2' = \frac{I_2}{a}

For the secondary impedance, equating the I2ZI^2Z drop (power and VAr) before and after:

I2′ 2R2′=I22R2⇒R2′=R2(I2I2′)2=a2R2I_2'^{\,2}R_2' = I_2^2R_2 \Rightarrow R_2' = R_2\left(\frac{I_2}{I_2'}\right)^2 = a^2R_2 X2′=a2X2,ZL′=a2ZLX_2' = a^2X_2,\qquad Z_L' = a^2Z_L

The referred circuit has all the elements on the primary side:

   R1    X1     R2'     X2'
 o-/\/\--UUU--+--/\/\--UUU--+---o
              |            |
  V1        Rc   Xm       ZL' (= a^2 ZL)
              |            |
 o------------+------------+---o

Then the total referred values are

R01=R1+a2R2,X01=X1+a2X2,Z01=R012+X012R_{01} = R_1 + a^2R_2,\qquad X_{01} = X_1 + a^2X_2,\qquad Z_{01} = \sqrt{R_{01}^2 + X_{01}^2}

The shunt branch (Rc,XmR_c, X_m) is often moved to the input terminals (approximate circuit) because I0I_0 is small. With this approximation the circuit is: V1V_1 across Rc∥XmR_c \parallel X_m, followed by R01+jX01R_{01} + jX_{01} in series with ZL′Z_L'.

Referring to the secondary side

Primary quantities are referred to the secondary by dividing by aa (voltage) and a2a^2 (impedance):

R1′=R1a2,X1′=X1a2,R02=R2+R1a2,X02=X2+X1a2R_1' = \frac{R_1}{a^2},\quad X_1' = \frac{X_1}{a^2},\quad R_{02} = R_2 + \frac{R_1}{a^2},\quad X_{02} = X_2 + \frac{X_1}{a^2}

Similarly Rc′=Rc/a2R_c' = R_c/a^2, Xm′=Xm/a2X_m' = X_m/a^2, and the primary current becomes aI1aI_1.

Rule: an impedance is multiplied by a2a^2 when moved from the secondary to the primary, and divided by a2a^2 when moved from the primary to the secondary, where a=N1/N2a = N_1/N_2.

  • 2074 Bhadra (old course)

State the conditions for proper operation of two transformers in parallel giving reasons for imposition of each of these conditions.

Answer

When the load is more than one transformer can carry, or for reliability and maintenance, two or more transformers are connected in parallel (primaries to the same supply, secondaries to the same bus). The following conditions must hold.

Essential conditions

  1. Same voltage ratio (turns ratio). Reason: if the ratios differ, the secondary no-load emfs differ. A circulating current Ic=ΔE/(ZA+ZB)I_c = \Delta E/(Z_{A} + Z_{B}) flows between the secondaries even at no load, and heats the windings and wastes power. Since the impedance is small, even a 1% difference gives a large current.

  2. Same polarity (terminals connected correctly). Reason: with wrong polarity the two secondary emfs add in the loop and act as a short circuit, causing a very large current that can burn the windings.

  3. Same phase sequence and zero relative phase displacement (three-phase units). Reason: the secondary line voltages must coincide at every instant. Otherwise there is a voltage difference between the two bus-bar connections, giving large circulating currents. Transformers with the same vector group (for example Dyn11 with Dyn11) can be paralleled; a group with a 30° shift cannot be paralleled with 0°.

  4. Equal per-unit (percentage) impedance on their own kVA bases. Reason: load is shared in inverse proportion to the per-unit impedance. If the per-unit impedances differ, the one with the lower value is overloaded while the other is lightly loaded, so the combined rating is not fully used.

  5. Same ratio of resistance to reactance (R/XR/X). Reason: if the X/RX/R ratios differ, the two load currents are out of phase with each other. Each transformer then works at a different power factor, and the total current is less than the arithmetic sum, so the combined capacity is reduced.

Desirable but not essential

  • Same frequency (always satisfied if on the same supply).
  • Kva ratings that are not too different (ratio less than 3:1), since the impedance requirement is harder to meet.

In short: equal ratio, correct polarity, same phase relation, and equal per-unit impedance with the same X/RX/R ratio.

  • 2067 Mangsir (old course) · 4 marks

Justify the statement: It is not possible to operate star delta transformer in parallel with star-star or delta-delta transformer.

Answer

Parallel operation requires that the secondary line voltages of the two banks be exactly equal in magnitude and in phase. A star–delta transformer does not meet this condition with a star–star or a delta–delta bank.

Reason: phase displacement

  • In a star–star or delta–delta transformer, the secondary line voltage is in phase with the primary line voltage (0° shift).
  • In a star–delta (or delta–star) transformer, the secondary line voltage is displaced by 30° from the primary (lagging for Yd1, leading for Dy11).

When the primaries are on the same supply, the secondary line voltages of the two banks differ by 30°.

  V (Y-Y secondary)
   ^
   |    30 deg
   |  /  V (Y-D secondary)
   | /
   +----------------->

The voltage difference across the paralleled terminals is

ΔV=2Vsin⁡30∘2=0.518 V\Delta V = 2V\sin\frac{30^\circ}{2} = 0.518\,V

This is about 52% of the rated secondary voltage. It appears across the very low internal impedances of the two transformers, so a huge circulating current flows, even at no load. The windings overheat and may be damaged, and the load cannot be shared properly.

Also: the voltage ratios differ in form. Star–delta has VL2/VL1=1/(3 a)V_{L2}/V_{L1} = 1/(\sqrt3\,a) compared with 1/a1/a for star–star, so the turns would have to be redesigned. Even if the magnitudes matched, the 30° displacement cannot be removed by any change of turns ratio.

Hence star–delta can be paralleled only with another star–delta, or with a transformer that has the same phase displacement (the same vector group), such as delta–star of the right group.

  • 2067 Mangsir (old course) · 8 marks

Two 1-phase transformers with equal number of turns have impedance of (0.5+j3) Ω(0.5 + j3)\ \Omega and (0.6+j10) Ω(0.6 + j10)\ \Omega with respect to the secondary. If they operate in parallel, determine how they will share total load of 100 kW at pf 0.8 lagging.

Answer

Two transformers with equal turns ratio have the same secondary voltage, and they share the load current in inverse proportion to their impedances.

Given: ZA=0.5+j3 ΩZ_A = 0.5 + j3\ \Omega, ZB=0.6+j10 ΩZ_B = 0.6 + j10\ \Omega (referred to secondary), total load P=100P = 100 kW at 0.8 pf lagging.

Total load

S=1000.8=125 kVA,ϕ=cos⁡−10.8=36.87∘ laggingS = \frac{100}{0.8} = 125\ \text{kVA},\qquad \phi = \cos^{-1}0.8 = 36.87^\circ\ \text{lagging}

Current division. Let the total current be I=I∠−36.87∘I = I\angle-36.87^\circ with V2V_2 as reference. For parallel branches:

IA=IZBZA+ZB,IB=IZAZA+ZBI_A = I\frac{Z_B}{Z_A + Z_B},\qquad I_B = I\frac{Z_A}{Z_A + Z_B} ZA+ZB=1.1+j13 ΩZBZA+ZB=0.7676+j0.0188=0.7679∠1.40∘ZAZA+ZB=0.2324−j0.0188=0.2331∠−4.63∘\begin{aligned} Z_A + Z_B &= 1.1 + j13\ \Omega \\ \frac{Z_B}{Z_A + Z_B} &= 0.7676 + j0.0188 = 0.7679\angle1.40^\circ \\ \frac{Z_A}{Z_A + Z_B} &= 0.2324 - j0.0188 = 0.2331\angle-4.63^\circ \end{aligned}

Load shared (kVA = fraction of 125 kVA, since V2V_2 is common):

SA=0.7679×125=95.98 kVA at angle 36.87∘−1.40∘=35.47∘PA=95.98cos⁡35.47∘=78.17 kW,pfA=0.814 lagSB=0.2331×125=29.14 kVA at angle 36.87∘+4.63∘=41.50∘PB=29.14cos⁡41.50∘=21.83 kW,pfB=0.749 lag\begin{aligned} S_A &= 0.7679\times125 = 95.98\ \text{kVA at angle } 36.87^\circ - 1.40^\circ = 35.47^\circ \\ P_A &= 95.98\cos35.47^\circ = 78.17\ \text{kW},\quad \text{pf}_A = 0.814\ \text{lag} \\ S_B &= 0.2331\times125 = 29.14\ \text{kVA at angle } 36.87^\circ + 4.63^\circ = 41.50^\circ \\ P_B &= 29.14\cos41.50^\circ = 21.83\ \text{kW},\quad \text{pf}_B = 0.749\ \text{lag} \end{aligned}

Check: PA+PB=78.17+21.83=100P_A + P_B = 78.17 + 21.83 = 100 kW.

TransformerkVAkWPower factor
A95.9878.170.814 lag
B29.1421.830.749 lag

Answer: A supplies about 78.2 kW (96.0 kVA) and B about 21.8 kW (29.1 kVA). The transformer of lower impedance (A) carries the greater share.

  • 2067 Mangsir (old course) · 8 marks

What is meant by an instrument transformer? How they differ in principle of operation from that of power transformer? Explain with suitable diagram and mathematical expressions.

Answer

An instrument transformer is a special transformer used to step down high voltages or currents to safe, measurable values for meters and relays. It isolates the measuring circuit from the high-voltage line. There are two types: the current transformer (CT) and the potential transformer (PT).

Types and working

Current transformer. The primary has few turns (often a single bar) and is connected in series with the line. The secondary has many turns and feeds an ammeter or relay coil (low impedance burden). Its secondary is nearly short-circuited. Secondary current is 5 A or 1 A.

I1N1=I2N2⇒I1I2=N2N1=CT ratioI_1N_1 = I_2N_2 \Rightarrow \frac{I_1}{I_2} = \frac{N_2}{N_1} = \text{CT ratio}

Potential transformer. The primary is connected across the line, and the secondary feeds a voltmeter or pressure coil (high impedance burden). It works almost at no load, with secondary voltage 110 V.

V1V2=N1N2\frac{V_1}{V_2} = \frac{N_1}{N_2}
  Line ----+----- Load       Line ------+------
           |                            |
          [CT]--(A)                    [PT]--(V)

Difference from the power transformer

PointInstrument transformerPower transformer
PurposeMeasurement and protectionTransfer of power
RatingA few VA (burden)kVA to MVA
Primary current (CT)Decided by the line current (series)Decided by the secondary load
FluxCT: flux depends on line current; PT: constantConstant at all loads
Secondary conditionCT: nearly short-circuit; PT: nearly openVaries with the load
Main design aimHigh accuracy (small ratio and phase-angle error)High efficiency, good regulation
Core flux densityLow, to keep exciting current smallClose to saturation
Secondary openDangerous for CTSafe
ErrorsRatio and phase-angle errors matterNot a design concern

Errors

For a CT, the exciting current I0I_0 is drawn from the primary but does not appear in the secondary, so the actual ratio I1/I2I_1/I_2 differs from the turns ratio N2/N1N_2/N_1 (ratio error), and I2I_2 is not exactly 180° from I1I_1 (phase-angle error). Both errors are kept small by a low-loss, high-permeability core operated at low flux density and by a low burden.

  • 2068 Bhadra · 1+3 marks

State whether the following statement is true or false and justify: Secondary of CT should not be kept open while the primary winding is energized.

Answer

True. The secondary of a current transformer must never be left open while the primary carries current. It should be short-circuited (or connected to a low-impedance burden) first.

Justification

In a CT the primary is in series with the line, so the primary current I1I_1 is fixed by the load of the power system and does not depend on the secondary. Under normal working, the secondary current I2I_2 produces an mmf N2I2N_2I_2 that almost cancels the primary mmf N1I1N_1I_1. Only a small net mmf (equal to the exciting mmf N1I0N_1I_0) remains to magnetise the core, so the flux is small.

If the secondary is opened:

  1. I2=0I_2 = 0, so there is no opposing mmf. The full primary mmf N1I1N_1I_1 acts as magnetising mmf.
  2. The core flux rises sharply and the core saturates deeply.
  3. The secondary has a very large number of turns. The emf e2=N2 dϕ/dte_2 = N_2\,d\phi/dt becomes a high peaky voltage (several kV), which can break down the insulation and is dangerous to the operator.
  4. Core loss rises greatly, so the core overheats and may be damaged.
  5. A large residual flux is left in the core after the primary is de-energised, which spoils the ratio accuracy of the CT.

Hence the statement is true.

  • 2079 Jestha · 2+6 marks

Why secondary of CT should not be left open? Show that auto transformer is economical when the transformation ratio is very close to unity mentioning its application.

Answer

Why the secondary of a CT must not be left open

The primary of a CT carries the line current, which is independent of the secondary. With the secondary closed, the mmf N2I2N_2I_2 nearly cancels N1I1N_1I_1, leaving only a small exciting mmf. If the secondary is open, I2=0I_2 = 0 and the whole primary mmf magnetises the core. The flux rises far into saturation, causing very high induced voltage in the many-turn secondary (insulation breakdown and shock hazard), excessive core heating, and residual magnetism that destroys accuracy.

Autotransformer is economical when the ratio is near unity

An autotransformer has a single winding, part of which is common to the primary and the secondary. Let the primary have N1N_1 turns (terminals A–C), the secondary N2N_2 turns (taps B–C), and take N2<N1N_2 < N_1. Define K=N2N1=V2V1=I1I2K = \dfrac{N_2}{N_1} = \dfrac{V_2}{V_1} = \dfrac{I_1}{I_2}.

      I1
 A o-->------+
             |   section AB: (N1-N2) turns, current I1
 B o---+-----+
       |  I2-I1  section BC: N2 turns, current (I2 - I1)
 C o---+

The amount of copper is proportional to (turns × current) of each winding portion.

Two-winding transformer (primary N1N_1 at I1I_1, secondary N2N_2 at I2I_2):

W2w∝N1I1+N2I2=2N1I1W_{2w} \propto N_1I_1 + N_2I_2 = 2N_1I_1

Autotransformer:

Wauto∝(N1−N2)I1+N2(I2−I1)=N1I1(1−K)+N1I1(1−K)(using N2I2=N1I1, N2I1=KN1I1)=2N1I1(1−K)\begin{aligned} W_{auto} &\propto (N_1 - N_2)I_1 + N_2(I_2 - I_1) \\ &= N_1I_1(1 - K) + N_1I_1(1 - K)\quad(\text{using } N_2I_2 = N_1I_1,\ N_2I_1 = KN_1I_1) \\ &= 2N_1I_1(1 - K) \end{aligned} WautoW2w=1−K,saving=W2w−Wauto=K W2w\frac{W_{auto}}{W_{2w}} = 1 - K,\qquad \text{saving} = W_{2w} - W_{auto} = K\,W_{2w}

The saving in copper is the fraction KK of the copper of a two-winding transformer. When KK is close to 1 (for example 0.9), the autotransformer needs only (1−K)(1 - K) = 10% of the copper, a saving of 90%. When KK is small (say 0.2), the saving is only 20%, so it is not economical. Also, only a small part of the power, (1−K)(1 - K), is transferred by induction, while the rest is passed directly by conduction, so the core, losses and cost fall in the same way.

Applications: starting of induction motors (autotransformer starter), voltage regulators (variacs), boosting or reducing line voltage by 10 to 20%, and interconnecting 220 kV and 132 kV systems.

  • 2078 Chaitra · 2+6 marks

What is an auto transformer? State its merits and demerits over a two winding transformer. Derive an expression of cu-saving in auto transformer.

Answer

An auto transformer is a transformer with only one winding, part of which is common to both the primary and the secondary circuits. Power is transferred partly by conduction (the electrical connection) and partly by induction.

   I1                I2
 o--->---+          +---<--- o
         |          |
         |   N1-N2  |  load
         +----------+---o
         |   N2     |
 o-------+----------+---o

Merits over a two-winding transformer

  1. Less copper is needed (the saving is a fraction KK, derived below), so it is cheaper and lighter.
  2. Smaller size and lower weight for the same rating, since the core is also smaller.
  3. Lower copper and core losses, so higher efficiency.
  4. Better voltage regulation, as the leakage reactance and resistance are lower.
  5. Continuously variable output is possible with a sliding tap.

Demerits

  1. There is no electrical isolation between primary and secondary. A fault on the HV side can send high voltage to the LV side and danger to the user.
  2. The short-circuit current is high because of the low internal impedance.
  3. It is not economical when the ratio is far from 1 (for example 10:1).
  4. Neutral must be solidly earthed for three-phase units, and special protection is needed.

Copper saving

Let K=N2N1=V2V1=I1I2<1K = \dfrac{N_2}{N_1} = \dfrac{V_2}{V_1} = \dfrac{I_1}{I_2} < 1. Section AB (of N1−N2N_1 - N_2 turns) carries I1I_1 and section BC (of N2N_2 turns) carries (I2−I1)(I_2 - I_1). Copper weight is proportional to the ampere-turns of each section.

For the two-winding transformer: W2w∝N1I1+N2I2=2N1I1W_{2w} \propto N_1I_1 + N_2I_2 = 2N_1I_1.

For the autotransformer:

Wauto∝(N1−N2)I1+N2(I2−I1)=N1I1−N2I1+N2I2−N2I1=2N1I1−2N2I1=2N1I1(1−K)\begin{aligned} W_{auto} &\propto (N_1 - N_2)I_1 + N_2(I_2 - I_1) \\ &= N_1I_1 - N_2I_1 + N_2I_2 - N_2I_1 \\ &= 2N_1I_1 - 2N_2I_1 = 2N_1I_1(1 - K) \end{aligned} WautoW2w=1−K,Cu saving=K W2w\frac{W_{auto}}{W_{2w}} = 1 - K,\qquad \boxed{\text{Cu saving} = K\,W_{2w}}

For K=0.8K = 0.8, the autotransformer uses only 20% of the copper of the two-winding one, a saving of 80%.

  • 2070 Bhadra · 4 marks

Derive an expression for Cu saving in an auto-transformer.

Answer

Consider a single-phase autotransformer with N1N_1 turns across the primary and N2N_2 turns across the secondary (N2<N1N_2 < N_1), with

K=N2N1=V2V1=I1I2.K = \frac{N_2}{N_1} = \frac{V_2}{V_1} = \frac{I_1}{I_2}.
 I1 o-->---+        section AB: (N1-N2) turns, current I1
           |        section BC: N2 turns, current (I2 - I1)
           +---o V2, I2 to load
           |
 o---------+---o

Copper weight is proportional to the length of conductor times its cross-section, which is proportional to turns × current. Hence:

Autotransformer

Wauto∝(N1−N2)I1+N2(I2−I1)=N1I1−2N2I1+N2I2\begin{aligned} W_{auto} &\propto (N_1 - N_2)I_1 + N_2(I_2 - I_1) \\ &= N_1I_1 - 2N_2I_1 + N_2I_2 \end{aligned}

With N2I2=N1I1N_2I_2 = N_1I_1 and N2I1=KN1I1N_2I_1 = KN_1I_1:

Wauto∝2N1I1−2KN1I1=2N1I1(1−K)W_{auto} \propto 2N_1I_1 - 2KN_1I_1 = 2N_1I_1(1 - K)

Equivalent two-winding transformer

W2w∝N1I1+N2I2=2N1I1W_{2w} \propto N_1I_1 + N_2I_2 = 2N_1I_1

Ratio and saving

WautoW2w=1−K\frac{W_{auto}}{W_{2w}} = 1 - K Saving in copper=W2w−Wauto=K W2w\boxed{\text{Saving in copper} = W_{2w} - W_{auto} = K\,W_{2w}}

The saving is a fraction KK of the copper of the two-winding transformer. It is large when KK is near 1 and small when KK is small.

  • 2066 Magh (old course) · 8 marks

Describe the open circuit test and short circuit test for a single phase transformer.

Answer

The open circuit (OC) and short circuit (SC) tests find the equivalent circuit parameters, the losses and the efficiency of a transformer without loading it fully. They need very little power, which is only the loss of the transformer.

Open circuit test (no-load test)

Purpose: to find the core loss PiP_i, no-load current I0I_0 and the shunt branch R0R_0, X0X_0.

        W   A
 AC o---(W)--(A)----+----------+
 supply            (V)   HV winding open
 o-----------------+----------+
        LV winding (rated V)

Procedure: the HV winding is left open, and rated voltage V0V_0 at rated frequency is applied to the LV winding (which is safer and needs a lower-range instrument). A wattmeter, ammeter and voltmeter are connected on the LV side.

Calculations:

P0=V0I0cos⁡ϕ0,Iw=I0cos⁡ϕ0,Iμ=I0sin⁡ϕ0P_0 = V_0I_0\cos\phi_0,\quad I_w = I_0\cos\phi_0,\quad I_\mu = I_0\sin\phi_0 R0=V0Iw,X0=V0IμR_0 = \frac{V_0}{I_w},\qquad X_0 = \frac{V_0}{I_\mu}

Since I0I_0 is small (2 to 5% of rated), the copper loss I02R1I_0^2R_1 is negligible. So the wattmeter reading P0P_0 is the core (iron) loss, constant at all loads.

Short circuit test

Purpose: to find the full-load copper loss PcuP_{cu} and the equivalent resistance, reactance and impedance ReqR_{eq}, XeqX_{eq}, ZeqZ_{eq}.

        W   A
 AC o---(W)--(A)----+----------+
 supply (low V,    (V)   LV winding
 via variac)             short-circuited
 o-----------------+----------+
        HV winding

Procedure: the LV winding is short-circuited with a thick conductor. A low voltage VscV_{sc} (about 5 to 10% of rated) is applied to the HV winding and slowly increased by a variac until the rated full-load current IscI_{sc} flows. Wattmeter, ammeter and voltmeter are on the HV side.

Calculations:

Zeq=VscIsc,Req=PscIsc2,Xeq=Zeq2−Req2Z_{eq} = \frac{V_{sc}}{I_{sc}},\qquad R_{eq} = \frac{P_{sc}}{I_{sc}^2},\qquad X_{eq} = \sqrt{Z_{eq}^2 - R_{eq}^2}

Because the applied voltage is low, the flux and hence the core loss are very small (core loss varies as B2B^2). So the wattmeter reading PscP_{sc} is the full-load copper loss.

Uses of the results

  • Equivalent circuit parameters, from which regulation is found: VR≈I(Reqcos⁡ϕ±Xeqsin⁡ϕ)V\text{VR} \approx \dfrac{I(R_{eq}\cos\phi \pm X_{eq}\sin\phi)}{V}.
  • Efficiency at any load: η=xScos⁡ϕxScos⁡ϕ+Pi+x2Pcu\eta = \dfrac{xS\cos\phi}{xS\cos\phi + P_i + x^2P_{cu}}.
  • The maximum efficiency load x=Pi/Pcux = \sqrt{P_i/P_{cu}}.
  • Both tests together give the full test of the transformer with only the loss power drawn from the supply, which is the advantage over a direct load test.
  • 2079 Jestha · 8 marks

What is capacity of transformer? A 150 kVA single phase transformer has an iron loss of 700 W and a full load copper loss of 1800 W. Calculate the copper loss, iron loss, output power and efficiency of transformer at 0.8 power factor lagging when secondary is 25% overloaded.

Answer

Capacity of a transformer is its rated apparent power output (in kVA) at rated voltage and frequency. It is given in kVA, not kW, because the copper loss depends on the current and the core loss on the voltage, both independent of the power factor of the load.

Given: 150 kVA, Pi=700P_i = 700 W, Pcu,fl=1800P_{cu,fl} = 1800 W, pf =0.8= 0.8 lagging, load =125%= 125\% of full load, so x=1.25x = 1.25.

Copper loss at 25% overload

Pcu=x2Pcu,fl=1.252×1800=2812.5 WP_{cu} = x^2P_{cu,fl} = 1.25^2\times1800 = 2812.5\ \text{W}

Iron loss is independent of load: Pi=700P_i = 700 W.

Output power

Pout=x×S×cos⁡ϕ=1.25×150×0.8=150 kWP_{out} = x\times S\times\cos\phi = 1.25\times150\times0.8 = 150\ \text{kW}

Efficiency

Total loss=2812.5+700=3512.5 Wη=150 000150 000+3512.5×100=97.71%\begin{aligned} \text{Total loss} &= 2812.5 + 700 = 3512.5\ \text{W} \\ \eta &= \frac{150\,000}{150\,000 + 3512.5} \times100 = 97.71\% \end{aligned}

Answer: copper loss = 2812.5 W; iron loss = 700 W; output = 150 kW; efficiency = 97.71%

  • 2079 Jestha · 2+6 marks

Why is iron loss neglected in short circuit test of transformer? A single phase 400/200 V, 50 Hz transformer gave the following test results: Open circuit Test: 200 V, 1.5 A, 110 W on LV side Short circuit Test: 30 V, 18 A, 350 W on HV side Calculate the equivalent circuit parameters referred to primary side and draw the equivalent circuit showing calculated parameters.

Answer

Why iron loss is neglected in the SC test

In the short-circuit test only a small voltage (about 5 to 10% of the rated value) is applied, just enough to circulate full-load current in the shorted secondary. The core flux is proportional to the applied voltage, so it is only about 5 to 10% of normal flux. Core loss varies approximately as the square of the flux, so it becomes about 0.25 to 1% of the rated core loss, which is negligible. The wattmeter therefore reads the copper loss alone. In this problem 30/400=7.5%30/400 = 7.5\% of rated voltage, so the core loss is about 0.0752×110≈0.60.075^2\times110 \approx 0.6 W against 350 W.

Equivalent circuit parameters (referred to the primary)

Primary = HV side (400 V), secondary = LV side (200 V).

Open-circuit test (on the LV side)

The no-load power is almost entirely core loss, so the shunt branch is found from it.

cos⁡ϕ0=P0V0I0=110200×1.5=0.3667Iw=I0cos⁡ϕ0=0.55 A,Iμ=I02−Iw2=1.396 AR0=V0Iw=363.6 Ω,X0=V0Iμ=143.3 Ω(on the LV side)\begin{aligned} \cos\phi_0 &= \frac{P_0}{V_0I_0} = \frac{110}{200\times1.5} = 0.3667 \\ I_w &= I_0\cos\phi_0 = 0.55\ \text{A},\qquad I_\mu = \sqrt{I_0^2 - I_w^2} = 1.396\ \text{A} \\ R_0 &= \frac{V_0}{I_w} = 363.6\ \Omega,\qquad X_0 = \frac{V_0}{I_\mu} = 143.3\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the LV side}) \end{aligned}

Short-circuit test (on the HV side)

At the reduced test voltage the core loss is negligible, so the wattmeter reading is the copper loss.

Zsc=VscIsc=3018=1.667 ΩRsc=PscIsc2=350182=1.08 ΩXsc=Zsc2−Rsc2=1.269 Ω(on the HV side)\begin{aligned} Z_{sc} &= \frac{V_{sc}}{I_{sc}} = \frac{30}{18} = 1.667\ \Omega \\ R_{sc} &= \frac{P_{sc}}{I_{sc}^2} = \frac{350}{18^2} = 1.08\ \Omega \\ X_{sc} &= \sqrt{Z_{sc}^2 - R_{sc}^2} = 1.269\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the HV side}) \end{aligned}

Referring to the HV side

The turns ratio is K=400/200=2K = 400/200 = 2, so K2=4K^2 = 4. Impedances are multiplied by K2K^2 when moved from LV to HV, and divided by K2K^2 when moved from HV to LV.

R0′=363.6×4=1455 ΩX0′=143.3×4=573.3 Ω\begin{aligned} R_0' &= 363.6 \times 4 = 1455\ \Omega \\ X_0' &= 143.3 \times 4 = 573.3\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Equivalent circuit referred to the HV side

   Req=1.08 ohm   Xeq=1.27 ohm
 o--+-----/\/\/\-----UUUU------o
    |                          
   [R0=1455] [X0=573.3]   Load
    |      (in parallel)
 o--+---------------------------o

Req=1.08 ΩR_{eq} = 1.08\ \Omega, Xeq=1.269 ΩX_{eq} = 1.269\ \Omega (Zeq=1.667 ΩZ_{eq} = 1.667\ \Omega), shunt branch R0=1455 ΩR_0 = 1455\ \Omega in parallel with X0=573.3 ΩX_0 = 573.3\ \Omega.

The shunt branch carries I0I_0 referred to the primary =1.5/2=0.75= 1.5/2 = 0.75 A.

Answer (referred to primary): R01=1.080 ΩR_{01} = 1.080\ \Omega, X01=1.269 ΩX_{01} = 1.269\ \Omega, R0=1454.5 ΩR_0 = 1454.5\ \Omega, X0=573.3 ΩX_0 = 573.3\ \Omega.

  • 2078 Poush · 6+2 marks

A 10 kVA, single phase transformer for 2500/500 V has R1=5.5 ΩR_1 = 5.5\ \Omega, X1=12 ΩX_1 = 12\ \Omega, R2=0.2 ΩR_2 = 0.2\ \Omega, X2=0.45 ΩX_2 = 0.45\ \Omega. Determine the appropriate value of secondary voltage and % voltage regulation at full load, 0.8 pf lagging, when primary applied voltage is 2000 V. Also calculate the power factor for maximum regulation.

Answer

Given: 10 kVA, 2500/500 V, R1=5.5 ΩR_1 = 5.5\ \Omega, X1=12 ΩX_1 = 12\ \Omega, R2=0.2 ΩR_2 = 0.2\ \Omega, X2=0.45 ΩX_2 = 0.45\ \Omega, V1=2000V_1 = 2000 V, load pf 0.80.8 lagging at full load.

Refer everything to the secondary (K=500/2500=0.2K = 500/2500 = 0.2, K2=0.04K^2 = 0.04):

R02=R2+K2R1=0.2+0.04×5.5=0.42 ΩX02=X2+K2X1=0.45+0.04×12=0.93 ΩZ02=0.422+0.932=1.0204 Ω\begin{aligned} R_{02} &= R_2 + K^2R_1 = 0.2 + 0.04\times5.5 = 0.42\ \Omega \\ X_{02} &= X_2 + K^2X_1 = 0.45 + 0.04\times12 = 0.93\ \Omega \\ Z_{02} &= \sqrt{0.42^2 + 0.93^2} = 1.0204\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Full-load current and no-load secondary voltage

I2=10 000500=20 A,E2=KV1=0.2×2000=400 VI_2 = \frac{10\,000}{500} = 20\ \text{A},\qquad E_2 = KV_1 = 0.2\times2000 = 400\ \text{V}

Since the exciting current is neglected, the secondary no-load voltage is 400 V with the 2000 V supply.

Secondary terminal voltage (with cos⁡ϕ=0.8\cos\phi = 0.8, sin⁡ϕ=0.6\sin\phi = 0.6). Using V2V_2 as reference:

E22=(V2+I2R02cos⁡ϕ+I2X02sin⁡ϕ)2+(I2X02cos⁡ϕ−I2R02sin⁡ϕ)2I2R02cos⁡ϕ+I2X02sin⁡ϕ=20(0.336+0.558)=17.88 VI2X02cos⁡ϕ−I2R02sin⁡ϕ=20(0.744−0.252)=9.84 V4002=(V2+17.88)2+9.842⇒V2=382.0 V\begin{aligned} E_2^2 &= (V_2 + I_2R_{02}\cos\phi + I_2X_{02}\sin\phi)^2 + (I_2X_{02}\cos\phi - I_2R_{02}\sin\phi)^2 \\ I_2R_{02}\cos\phi + I_2X_{02}\sin\phi &= 20(0.336 + 0.558) = 17.88\ \text{V} \\ I_2X_{02}\cos\phi - I_2R_{02}\sin\phi &= 20(0.744 - 0.252) = 9.84\ \text{V} \\ 400^2 &= (V_2 + 17.88)^2 + 9.84^2 \Rightarrow V_2 = 382.0\ \text{V} \end{aligned}

Percentage regulation

VR=400−382.0400×100=4.50%\text{VR} = \frac{400 - 382.0}{400}\times100 = 4.50\%

(The approximate formula gives 17.88400×100=4.47%\dfrac{17.88}{400}\times100 = 4.47\%.)

Power factor for maximum regulation

Regulation is greatest when tan⁡ϕ=X02/R02\tan\phi = X_{02}/R_{02}, i.e.

cos⁡ϕ=R02Z02=0.421.0204=0.4116 lagging\cos\phi = \frac{R_{02}}{Z_{02}} = \frac{0.42}{1.0204} = 0.4116\ \text{lagging}

The maximum regulation is I2Z02E2×100=20×1.0204400×100=5.10%\dfrac{I_2Z_{02}}{E_2}\times100 = \dfrac{20\times1.0204}{400}\times100 = 5.10\%.

Answer: V2≈382V_2 \approx 382 V; regulation ≈4.5%\approx 4.5\%; pf for maximum regulation =0.412= 0.412 lagging (VRmax=5.1%_{max} = 5.1\%)

  • 2078 Chaitra · 8 marks

A 1000-VA 230/115-V transformer has been tested to determine its equivalent circuit. The results of the tests are shown below.
Open-circuit test (on secondary side)Short-circuit test (on primary side)
VocV_{oc} = 115 VVscV_{sc} = 17.1 V
IocI_{oc} = 0.11 AIscI_{sc} = 8.7 A
PocP_{oc} = 3.9 WPscP_{sc} = 38.1 W
(i) Find the equivalent circuit of this transformer referred to the low-voltage side of the transformer. (ii) Determine the transformer's efficiency at rated conditions and 0.8 PF lagging.

Answer

Given: 1000 VA, 230/115 V. HV = 230 V, LV = 115 V, so K=2K = 2 and K2=4K^2 = 4.

The OC test was done on the LV side at rated voltage, so the shunt branch is already on the LV side. The SC test was done on the HV side, so the series branch must be divided by K2=4K^2 = 4 to refer it to the LV side.

(i) Equivalent circuit referred to the LV side

Open-circuit test (LV side): Voc=115V_{oc} = 115 V, Ioc=0.11I_{oc} = 0.11 A, Poc=3.9P_{oc} = 3.9 W.

cos⁡ϕ0=3.9115×0.11=0.3083Iw=0.11×0.3083=0.03391 A,Iμ=0.112−0.033912=0.1046 ARc=1150.03391=3391 Ω,Xm=1150.1046=1099 Ω\begin{aligned} \cos\phi_0 &= \frac{3.9}{115\times0.11} = 0.3083 \\ I_w &= 0.11\times0.3083 = 0.03391\ \text{A},\quad I_\mu = \sqrt{0.11^2 - 0.03391^2} = 0.1046\ \text{A} \\ R_c &= \frac{115}{0.03391} = 3391\ \Omega,\qquad X_m = \frac{115}{0.1046} = 1099\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Short-circuit test (HV side): Vsc=17.1V_{sc} = 17.1 V, Isc=8.7I_{sc} = 8.7 A, Psc=38.1P_{sc} = 38.1 W.

Zeq,H=17.18.7=1.966 Ω,Req,H=38.18.72=0.5034 ΩXeq,H=1.9662−0.50342=1.900 Ω\begin{aligned} Z_{eq,H} &= \frac{17.1}{8.7} = 1.966\ \Omega,\qquad R_{eq,H} = \frac{38.1}{8.7^2} = 0.5034\ \Omega \\ X_{eq,H} &= \sqrt{1.966^2 - 0.5034^2} = 1.900\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Referred to the LV side:

Req,L=0.50344=0.1258 Ω,Xeq,L=1.9004=0.4750 ΩR_{eq,L} = \frac{0.5034}{4} = 0.1258\ \Omega,\qquad X_{eq,L} = \frac{1.900}{4} = 0.4750\ \Omega
   Req=0.1258 ohm   Xeq=0.475 ohm
 o--+-----/\/\/\-----UUUU------o
    |
   [Rc=3391] [Xm=1099]    Load (LV side, 115 V)
    |
 o--+---------------------------o

(ii) Efficiency at rated load, 0.8 pf lagging

Rated LV current: I2=1000115=8.696I_2 = \dfrac{1000}{115} = 8.696 A.

Pcu=I22Req,L=8.6962×0.1258=9.515 WPcore=3.9 W (OC test at rated voltage)Pout=1000×0.8=800 Wη=800800+9.515+3.9×100=98.35%\begin{aligned} P_{cu} &= I_2^2R_{eq,L} = 8.696^2\times0.1258 = 9.515\ \text{W} \\ P_{core} &= 3.9\ \text{W (OC test at rated voltage)} \\ P_{out} &= 1000\times0.8 = 800\ \text{W} \\ \eta &= \frac{800}{800 + 9.515 + 3.9}\times100 = 98.35\% \end{aligned}

(The same copper loss follows from the HV side: rated HV current 4.3484.348 A, 4.3482×0.5034=9.5154.348^2\times0.5034 = 9.515 W.)

Answer: Rc=3391 ΩR_c = 3391\ \Omega, Xm=1099 ΩX_m = 1099\ \Omega, Req=0.126 ΩR_{eq} = 0.126\ \Omega, Xeq=0.475 ΩX_{eq} = 0.475\ \Omega (LV side); η=98.35%\eta = 98.35\%

  • 2078 Baisakh · 8 marks

Test data on a 1-phase, 250/500 V, 50 Hz transformer are: No-Load Test: 250 V, 1 A, 80 W (carried on LV side) Short circuit Test: 20 V, 12 A, 100 W (carried on HV side) Then draw equivalent circuit referred to primary side.

Answer

Given: 250/500 V, 50 Hz. The primary is the 250 V (LV) winding, the secondary is the 500 V (HV) winding, K=500/250=2K = 500/250 = 2.

Open-circuit test (on the LV side)

The no-load power is almost entirely core loss, so the shunt branch is found from it.

cos⁡ϕ0=P0V0I0=80250×1=0.32Iw=I0cos⁡ϕ0=0.32 A,Iμ=I02−Iw2=0.9474 AR0=V0Iw=781.2 Ω,X0=V0Iμ=263.9 Ω(on the LV side)\begin{aligned} \cos\phi_0 &= \frac{P_0}{V_0I_0} = \frac{80}{250\times1} = 0.32 \\ I_w &= I_0\cos\phi_0 = 0.32\ \text{A},\qquad I_\mu = \sqrt{I_0^2 - I_w^2} = 0.9474\ \text{A} \\ R_0 &= \frac{V_0}{I_w} = 781.2\ \Omega,\qquad X_0 = \frac{V_0}{I_\mu} = 263.9\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the LV side}) \end{aligned}

Short-circuit test (on the HV side)

At the reduced test voltage the core loss is negligible, so the wattmeter reading is the copper loss.

Zsc=VscIsc=2012=1.667 ΩRsc=PscIsc2=100122=0.6944 ΩXsc=Zsc2−Rsc2=1.515 Ω(on the HV side)\begin{aligned} Z_{sc} &= \frac{V_{sc}}{I_{sc}} = \frac{20}{12} = 1.667\ \Omega \\ R_{sc} &= \frac{P_{sc}}{I_{sc}^2} = \frac{100}{12^2} = 0.6944\ \Omega \\ X_{sc} &= \sqrt{Z_{sc}^2 - R_{sc}^2} = 1.515\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the HV side}) \end{aligned}

Referring to the LV side

The turns ratio is K=500/250=2K = 500/250 = 2, so K2=4K^2 = 4. Impedances are multiplied by K2K^2 when moved from LV to HV, and divided by K2K^2 when moved from HV to LV.

Req=0.6944÷4=0.1736 ΩXeq=1.515÷4=0.3788 Ω\begin{aligned} R_{eq} &= 0.6944 \div 4 = 0.1736\ \Omega \\ X_{eq} &= 1.515 \div 4 = 0.3788\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Equivalent circuit referred to the LV side

   Req=0.174 ohm   Xeq=0.379 ohm
 o--+-----/\/\/\-----UUUU------o
    |                          
   [R0=781.2] [X0=263.9]   Load
    |      (in parallel)
 o--+---------------------------o

Req=0.1736 ΩR_{eq} = 0.1736\ \Omega, Xeq=0.3788 ΩX_{eq} = 0.3788\ \Omega (Zeq=0.4167 ΩZ_{eq} = 0.4167\ \Omega), shunt branch R0=781.2 ΩR_0 = 781.2\ \Omega in parallel with X0=263.9 ΩX_0 = 263.9\ \Omega.

Answer (referred to primary): R0=781.3 ΩR_0 = 781.3\ \Omega, X0=263.9 ΩX_0 = 263.9\ \Omega, R01=0.1736 ΩR_{01} = 0.1736\ \Omega, X01=0.3788 ΩX_{01} = 0.3788\ \Omega

  • 2068 Magh · 8 marks

Test data on a 1-phase, 250/500 V, 50 Hz transformer are: O.C. Test: 250 V, 1 A, 80 W (carried on L.V. side) S.C. Test: 20 V, 12 A, 100 W (carried on H.V. side) Then draw the equivalent circuit referred to primary side and find out the output power to obtain maximum efficiency at 0.9 lag p.f.

Answer

Given: 250/500 V, 50 Hz. Primary = 250 V (LV), K=2K = 2. The rated HV current is taken as the SC-test current, I2,fl=12I_{2,fl} = 12 A, so the rating is S=500×12=6S = 500\times12 = 6 kVA (this is stated as an assumption since the rating is not given).

Open-circuit test (on the LV side)

The no-load power is almost entirely core loss, so the shunt branch is found from it.

cos⁡ϕ0=P0V0I0=80250×1=0.32Iw=I0cos⁡ϕ0=0.32 A,Iμ=I02−Iw2=0.9474 AR0=V0Iw=781.2 Ω,X0=V0Iμ=263.9 Ω(on the LV side)\begin{aligned} \cos\phi_0 &= \frac{P_0}{V_0I_0} = \frac{80}{250\times1} = 0.32 \\ I_w &= I_0\cos\phi_0 = 0.32\ \text{A},\qquad I_\mu = \sqrt{I_0^2 - I_w^2} = 0.9474\ \text{A} \\ R_0 &= \frac{V_0}{I_w} = 781.2\ \Omega,\qquad X_0 = \frac{V_0}{I_\mu} = 263.9\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the LV side}) \end{aligned}

Short-circuit test (on the HV side)

At the reduced test voltage the core loss is negligible, so the wattmeter reading is the copper loss.

Zsc=VscIsc=2012=1.667 ΩRsc=PscIsc2=100122=0.6944 ΩXsc=Zsc2−Rsc2=1.515 Ω(on the HV side)\begin{aligned} Z_{sc} &= \frac{V_{sc}}{I_{sc}} = \frac{20}{12} = 1.667\ \Omega \\ R_{sc} &= \frac{P_{sc}}{I_{sc}^2} = \frac{100}{12^2} = 0.6944\ \Omega \\ X_{sc} &= \sqrt{Z_{sc}^2 - R_{sc}^2} = 1.515\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the HV side}) \end{aligned}

Referring to the LV side

The turns ratio is K=500/250=2K = 500/250 = 2, so K2=4K^2 = 4. Impedances are multiplied by K2K^2 when moved from LV to HV, and divided by K2K^2 when moved from HV to LV.

Req=0.6944÷4=0.1736 ΩXeq=1.515÷4=0.3788 Ω\begin{aligned} R_{eq} &= 0.6944 \div 4 = 0.1736\ \Omega \\ X_{eq} &= 1.515 \div 4 = 0.3788\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Equivalent circuit referred to the LV side

   Req=0.174 ohm   Xeq=0.379 ohm
 o--+-----/\/\/\-----UUUU------o
    |                          
   [R0=781.2] [X0=263.9]   Load
    |      (in parallel)
 o--+---------------------------o

Req=0.1736 ΩR_{eq} = 0.1736\ \Omega, Xeq=0.3788 ΩX_{eq} = 0.3788\ \Omega (Zeq=0.4167 ΩZ_{eq} = 0.4167\ \Omega), shunt branch R0=781.2 ΩR_0 = 781.2\ \Omega in parallel with X0=263.9 ΩX_0 = 263.9\ \Omega.

Output power for maximum efficiency at 0.9 lag

The core loss is the OC wattmeter reading, Pi=80P_i = 80 W. The full-load copper loss is the SC wattmeter reading, Pcu,fl=100P_{cu,fl} = 100 W (the test was done at rated current).

Maximum efficiency occurs when copper loss equals iron loss:

x2Pcu,fl=Pi⇒x=80100=0.8944kVA at ηmax=0.8944×6=5.367 kVAPout=5.367×0.9=4.830 kW\begin{aligned} x^2P_{cu,fl} &= P_i \Rightarrow x = \sqrt{\frac{80}{100}} = 0.8944 \\ \text{kVA at } \eta_{max} &= 0.8944\times6 = 5.367\ \text{kVA} \\ P_{out} &= 5.367\times0.9 = 4.830\ \text{kW} \end{aligned}

Check of efficiency: ηmax=48304830+2×80×100=96.8%\eta_{max} = \dfrac{4830}{4830 + 2\times80}\times100 = 96.8\%.

Answer: output power at maximum efficiency ≈4.83\approx 4.83 kW (5.37 kVA at 0.9 pf lagging); equivalent circuit parameters are as above

  • 2065 Chaitra (old course) · 8 marks

A 1 phase 250/500 V, 50 Hz transformer gave the following test results: Open circuit test: 250 V, 1 A, 80 W on H.V. side Short-circuit test: 20 V, 12 A, 100 W on L.V. side Calculate the equivalent circuit parameters and draw the equivalent circuit referred to low voltage side and high voltage side.

Answer

Data as printed: the OC test is on the HV winding (250 V, 1 A, 80 W) and the SC test is on the LV winding (20 V, 12 A, 100 W). The test values are used exactly as given. The transformer is 250/500 V, so the LV winding is 250 V, the HV winding is 500 V, and K=2K = 2, K2=4K^2 = 4.

Open-circuit test (HV side)

cos⁡ϕ0=80250×1=0.32,Iw=0.32 A,Iμ=1−0.322=0.9474 AR0H=2500.32=781.25 Ω,X0H=2500.9474=263.9 Ω\begin{aligned} \cos\phi_0 &= \frac{80}{250\times1} = 0.32,\quad I_w = 0.32\ \text{A},\quad I_\mu = \sqrt{1 - 0.32^2} = 0.9474\ \text{A} \\ R_{0H} &= \frac{250}{0.32} = 781.25\ \Omega,\qquad X_{0H} = \frac{250}{0.9474} = 263.9\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Short-circuit test (LV side)

Zeq,L=2012=1.667 Ω,Req,L=100122=0.6944 ΩXeq,L=1.6672−0.69442=1.515 Ω\begin{aligned} Z_{eq,L} &= \frac{20}{12} = 1.667\ \Omega,\qquad R_{eq,L} = \frac{100}{12^2} = 0.6944\ \Omega \\ X_{eq,L} &= \sqrt{1.667^2 - 0.6944^2} = 1.515\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Referred to the high-voltage (HV) side

Impedance moves from LV to HV by multiplying by K2=4K^2 = 4:

Req,H=4×0.6944=2.778 Ω,Xeq,H=4×1.515=6.060 ΩR_{eq,H} = 4\times0.6944 = 2.778\ \Omega,\qquad X_{eq,H} = 4\times1.515 = 6.060\ \Omega

with shunt branch R0H=781.25 ΩR_{0H} = 781.25\ \Omega, X0H=263.9 ΩX_{0H} = 263.9\ \Omega.

  HV side:  Req=2.778 ohm  Xeq=6.06 ohm
 o--+-----/\/\/\-----UUUU------o
    |
   [R0=781.3] [X0=263.9]   Load
    |
 o--+---------------------------o

Referred to the low-voltage (LV) side

Shunt branch is divided by K2K^2:

R0L=781.254=195.3 Ω,X0L=263.94=65.97 ΩR_{0L} = \frac{781.25}{4} = 195.3\ \Omega,\qquad X_{0L} = \frac{263.9}{4} = 65.97\ \Omega

with series branch Req,L=0.6944 ΩR_{eq,L} = 0.6944\ \Omega, Xeq,L=1.515 ΩX_{eq,L} = 1.515\ \Omega.

  LV side:  Req=0.694 ohm  Xeq=1.515 ohm
 o--+-----/\/\/\-----UUUU------o
    |
   [R0=195.3] [X0=65.97]   Load
    |
 o--+---------------------------o

Answer: HV side: R0=781.3 ΩR_0 = 781.3\ \Omega, X0=263.9 ΩX_0 = 263.9\ \Omega, Req=2.778 ΩR_{eq} = 2.778\ \Omega, Xeq=6.060 ΩX_{eq} = 6.060\ \Omega. LV side: R0=195.3 ΩR_0 = 195.3\ \Omega, X0=65.97 ΩX_0 = 65.97\ \Omega, Req=0.694 ΩR_{eq} = 0.694\ \Omega, Xeq=1.515 ΩX_{eq} = 1.515\ \Omega

  • 2078 Baisakh · 8 marks

An 11000/230 V, 150 kVA, 50 Hz, single-phase transformer has a core loss of 1.4 kW and full load copper loss of 1.6 kW. Determine (i) the kVA load for maximum efficiency and the maximum efficiency (ii) the efficiency at half load and full load at 0.8 p.f. lagging.

Answer

Given: 150 kVA, 11000/230 V, core loss Pi=1.4P_i = 1.4 kW, full-load copper loss Pcu,fl=1.6P_{cu,fl} = 1.6 kW.

(i) Load for maximum efficiency

At maximum efficiency, copper loss equals core loss:

x2Pcu,fl=Pi⇒x=1.41.6=0.9354x^2P_{cu,fl} = P_i \Rightarrow x = \sqrt{\frac{1.4}{1.6}} = 0.9354 kVA at ηmax=0.9354×150=140.3 kVA\text{kVA at } \eta_{max} = 0.9354\times150 = 140.3\ \text{kVA}

The power factor is not given for this part; taking the same 0.8 lagging as in part (ii):

Pout=140.3×0.8=112.25 kWLosses=2Pi=2.8 kWηmax=112.25112.25+2.8×100=97.57%\begin{aligned} P_{out} &= 140.3\times0.8 = 112.25\ \text{kW} \\ \text{Losses} &= 2P_i = 2.8\ \text{kW} \\ \eta_{max} &= \frac{112.25}{112.25 + 2.8}\times100 = 97.57\% \end{aligned}

(At unity power factor the same load would give ηmax=140.31140.31+2.8×100=98.04%\eta_{max} = \dfrac{140.31}{140.31 + 2.8}\times100 = 98.04\%.)

(ii) Efficiency at 0.8 pf lagging

Full load (x=1x = 1):

η=150×0.8150×0.8+1.4+1.6×100=120123×100=97.56%\eta = \frac{150\times0.8}{150\times0.8 + 1.4 + 1.6}\times100 = \frac{120}{123}\times100 = 97.56\%

Half load (x=0.5x = 0.5): output =0.5×150×0.8=60= 0.5\times150\times0.8 = 60 kW, copper loss =0.25×1.6=0.4= 0.25\times1.6 = 0.4 kW.

η=6060+1.4+0.4×100=6061.8×100=97.09%\eta = \frac{60}{60 + 1.4 + 0.4}\times100 = \frac{60}{61.8}\times100 = 97.09\%

Answer: (i) 140.3 kVA, ηmax=97.57%\eta_{max} = 97.57\% (at 0.8 pf); (ii) full load 97.56%, half load 97.09%

  • 2076 Baisakh · 8 marks

A 20 kVA, 250 V/2500 V, 50 Hz single phase transformer gave the following test result: Open circuit test: 250 V, 1.4 A, 105 watts Short circuit test: 120 V, 8 A, 320 watts Calculate the equivalent circuit parameters referred to primary side and draw the equivalent circuit. Also calculate voltage regulation and efficiency at half full load for an 0.8 p.f. lagging.

Answer

Given: 20 kVA, 250 V/2500 V. Primary = LV (250 V), K=2500/250=10K = 2500/250 = 10, K2=100K^2 = 100.

Equivalent circuit parameters (referred to primary)

OC test (LV side): 250 V, 1.4 A, 105 W

cos⁡ϕ0=105250×1.4=0.3,Iw=0.42 A,Iμ=1.42−0.422=1.3355 AR0=2500.42=595.2 Ω,X0=2501.3355=187.2 Ω\begin{aligned} \cos\phi_0 &= \frac{105}{250\times1.4} = 0.3,\quad I_w = 0.42\ \text{A},\quad I_\mu = \sqrt{1.4^2 - 0.42^2} = 1.3355\ \text{A} \\ R_0 &= \frac{250}{0.42} = 595.2\ \Omega,\qquad X_0 = \frac{250}{1.3355} = 187.2\ \Omega \end{aligned}

SC test (HV side): 120 V, 8 A, 320 W. (The rated HV current is 20 000/2500=820\,000/2500 = 8 A, so this is a full-load test.)

Zeq,H=1208=15 Ω,Req,H=32082=5 Ω,Xeq,H=152−52=14.14 Ω\begin{aligned} Z_{eq,H} &= \frac{120}{8} = 15\ \Omega,\quad R_{eq,H} = \frac{320}{8^2} = 5\ \Omega,\quad X_{eq,H} = \sqrt{15^2 - 5^2} = 14.14\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Referred to primary (LV) by dividing by K2=100K^2 = 100:

R01=0.05 Ω,X01=0.1414 Ω,Z01=0.15 ΩR_{01} = 0.05\ \Omega,\qquad X_{01} = 0.1414\ \Omega,\qquad Z_{01} = 0.15\ \Omega
   R01=0.05 ohm   X01=0.1414 ohm
 o--+-----/\/\/\-----UUUU------o
    |
   [R0=595.2] [X0=187.2]   Load
    |
 o--+---------------------------o

Voltage regulation at half load, 0.8 pf lagging

Rated primary current I1=20 000/250=80I_1 = 20\,000/250 = 80 A; half load gives I1=40I_1 = 40 A.

I1(R01cos⁡ϕ+X01sin⁡ϕ)=40(0.05×0.8+0.1414×0.6)=4.994 VVR=4.994250×100=2.0%\begin{aligned} I_1(R_{01}\cos\phi + X_{01}\sin\phi) &= 40(0.05\times0.8 + 0.1414\times0.6) = 4.994\ \text{V} \\ \text{VR} &= \frac{4.994}{250}\times100 = 2.0\% \end{aligned}

Efficiency at half load, 0.8 pf lagging

Pout=0.5×20 000×0.8=8000 WPcu=0.52×320=80 W,Pi=105 Wη=80008000+80+105×100=97.74%\begin{aligned} P_{out} &= 0.5\times20\,000\times0.8 = 8000\ \text{W} \\ P_{cu} &= 0.5^2\times320 = 80\ \text{W},\qquad P_i = 105\ \text{W} \\ \eta &= \frac{8000}{8000 + 80 + 105}\times100 = 97.74\% \end{aligned}

Answer: R01=0.05 ΩR_{01} = 0.05\ \Omega, X01=0.1414 ΩX_{01} = 0.1414\ \Omega, R0=595.2 ΩR_0 = 595.2\ \Omega, X0=187.2 ΩX_0 = 187.2\ \Omega; regulation ≈2.0%\approx 2.0\%; efficiency =97.74%= 97.74\%

  • 2071 Magh · 8 marks

The following test results were obtained for open circuit and short circuit tests on a 8 kVA, 400/120 V, 50 Hz transformer: Open-circuit Test (LV Side): 120 V, 4 A, 75 W Short-circuit Test (HV Side): 9.5 V, 20 A, 110 W Calculate the equivalent circuit parameters referred to high voltage side. Also calculate the efficiency at half full load and 0.8 power factor lagging load.

Answer

Given: 8 kVA, 400/120 V. HV = 400 V, LV = 120 V, K=400/120=3.333K = 400/120 = 3.333, K2=11.11K^2 = 11.11. Rated HV current =8000/400=20= 8000/400 = 20 A, so the SC test is at full load.

Open-circuit test (on the LV side)

The no-load power is almost entirely core loss, so the shunt branch is found from it.

cos⁡ϕ0=P0V0I0=75120×4=0.1562Iw=I0cos⁡ϕ0=0.625 A,Iμ=I02−Iw2=3.951 AR0=V0Iw=192 Ω,X0=V0Iμ=30.37 Ω(on the LV side)\begin{aligned} \cos\phi_0 &= \frac{P_0}{V_0I_0} = \frac{75}{120\times4} = 0.1562 \\ I_w &= I_0\cos\phi_0 = 0.625\ \text{A},\qquad I_\mu = \sqrt{I_0^2 - I_w^2} = 3.951\ \text{A} \\ R_0 &= \frac{V_0}{I_w} = 192\ \Omega,\qquad X_0 = \frac{V_0}{I_\mu} = 30.37\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the LV side}) \end{aligned}

Short-circuit test (on the HV side)

At the reduced test voltage the core loss is negligible, so the wattmeter reading is the copper loss.

Zsc=VscIsc=9.520=0.475 ΩRsc=PscIsc2=110202=0.275 ΩXsc=Zsc2−Rsc2=0.3873 Ω(on the HV side)\begin{aligned} Z_{sc} &= \frac{V_{sc}}{I_{sc}} = \frac{9.5}{20} = 0.475\ \Omega \\ R_{sc} &= \frac{P_{sc}}{I_{sc}^2} = \frac{110}{20^2} = 0.275\ \Omega \\ X_{sc} &= \sqrt{Z_{sc}^2 - R_{sc}^2} = 0.3873\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the HV side}) \end{aligned}

Referring to the HV side

The turns ratio is K=400/120=3.333K = 400/120 = 3.333, so K2=11.11K^2 = 11.11. Impedances are multiplied by K2K^2 when moved from LV to HV, and divided by K2K^2 when moved from HV to LV.

R0′=192×11.11=2133 ΩX0′=30.37×11.11=337.5 Ω\begin{aligned} R_0' &= 192 \times 11.11 = 2133\ \Omega \\ X_0' &= 30.37 \times 11.11 = 337.5\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Equivalent circuit referred to the HV side

   Req=0.275 ohm   Xeq=0.387 ohm
 o--+-----/\/\/\-----UUUU------o
    |                          
   [R0=2133] [X0=337.5]   Load
    |      (in parallel)
 o--+---------------------------o

Req=0.275 ΩR_{eq} = 0.275\ \Omega, Xeq=0.3873 ΩX_{eq} = 0.3873\ \Omega (Zeq=0.475 ΩZ_{eq} = 0.475\ \Omega), shunt branch R0=2133 ΩR_0 = 2133\ \Omega in parallel with X0=337.5 ΩX_0 = 337.5\ \Omega.

Efficiency at half load, 0.8 pf lagging

Pout=0.5×8000×0.8=3200 WPcu=0.52×110=27.5 W,Pi=75 Wη=32003200+27.5+75×100=96.90%\begin{aligned} P_{out} &= 0.5\times8000\times0.8 = 3200\ \text{W} \\ P_{cu} &= 0.5^2\times110 = 27.5\ \text{W},\qquad P_i = 75\ \text{W} \\ \eta &= \frac{3200}{3200 + 27.5 + 75}\times100 = 96.90\% \end{aligned}

Answer (referred to HV): R0=2133 ΩR_0 = 2133\ \Omega, X0=337.5 ΩX_0 = 337.5\ \Omega, Req=0.275 ΩR_{eq} = 0.275\ \Omega, Xeq=0.3873 ΩX_{eq} = 0.3873\ \Omega; efficiency at half load =96.90%= 96.90\%

  • 2070 Magh · 8 marks

The following test results were obtained on a 20 kVA, 2200/220 V, 50 Hz single phase transformer: Open-circuit Test (LV Side): 220 V, 1.1 A, 125 W Short-circuit Test (HV Side): 52.7 V, 8.4 A, 287 W Calculate the equivalent circuit referred to L.V side and draw the equivalent circuit.

Answer

Given: 20 kVA, 2200/220 V, so HV = 2200 V, LV = 220 V, K=10K = 10, K2=100K^2 = 100. (Rated HV current is 20 000/2200=9.0920\,000/2200 = 9.09 A; the SC test was at 8.4 A, near full load.)

Open-circuit test (on the LV side)

The no-load power is almost entirely core loss, so the shunt branch is found from it.

cos⁡ϕ0=P0V0I0=125220×1.1=0.5165Iw=I0cos⁡ϕ0=0.5682 A,Iμ=I02−Iw2=0.9419 AR0=V0Iw=387.2 Ω,X0=V0Iμ=233.6 Ω(on the LV side)\begin{aligned} \cos\phi_0 &= \frac{P_0}{V_0I_0} = \frac{125}{220\times1.1} = 0.5165 \\ I_w &= I_0\cos\phi_0 = 0.5682\ \text{A},\qquad I_\mu = \sqrt{I_0^2 - I_w^2} = 0.9419\ \text{A} \\ R_0 &= \frac{V_0}{I_w} = 387.2\ \Omega,\qquad X_0 = \frac{V_0}{I_\mu} = 233.6\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the LV side}) \end{aligned}

Short-circuit test (on the HV side)

At the reduced test voltage the core loss is negligible, so the wattmeter reading is the copper loss.

Zsc=VscIsc=52.78.4=6.274 ΩRsc=PscIsc2=2878.42=4.067 ΩXsc=Zsc2−Rsc2=4.777 Ω(on the HV side)\begin{aligned} Z_{sc} &= \frac{V_{sc}}{I_{sc}} = \frac{52.7}{8.4} = 6.274\ \Omega \\ R_{sc} &= \frac{P_{sc}}{I_{sc}^2} = \frac{287}{8.4^2} = 4.067\ \Omega \\ X_{sc} &= \sqrt{Z_{sc}^2 - R_{sc}^2} = 4.777\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the HV side}) \end{aligned}

Referring to the LV side

The turns ratio is K=2200/220=10K = 2200/220 = 10, so K2=100K^2 = 100. Impedances are multiplied by K2K^2 when moved from LV to HV, and divided by K2K^2 when moved from HV to LV.

Req=4.067÷100=0.04067 ΩXeq=4.777÷100=0.04777 Ω\begin{aligned} R_{eq} &= 4.067 \div 100 = 0.04067\ \Omega \\ X_{eq} &= 4.777 \div 100 = 0.04777\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Equivalent circuit referred to the LV side

   Req=0.0407 ohm   Xeq=0.0478 ohm
 o--+-----/\/\/\-----UUUU------o
    |                          
   [R0=387.2] [X0=233.6]   Load
    |      (in parallel)
 o--+---------------------------o

Req=0.04067 ΩR_{eq} = 0.04067\ \Omega, Xeq=0.04777 ΩX_{eq} = 0.04777\ \Omega (Zeq=0.06274 ΩZ_{eq} = 0.06274\ \Omega), shunt branch R0=387.2 ΩR_0 = 387.2\ \Omega in parallel with X0=233.6 ΩX_0 = 233.6\ \Omega.

Answer (referred to LV side): R0=387.2 ΩR_0 = 387.2\ \Omega, X0=233.6 ΩX_0 = 233.6\ \Omega, Req=0.04067 ΩR_{eq} = 0.04067\ \Omega, Xeq=0.04777 ΩX_{eq} = 0.04777\ \Omega (Zeq=0.0627 ΩZ_{eq} = 0.0627\ \Omega)

  • 2068 Bhadra · 8 marks

A 10 kVA, 200/400 V, 50 Hz, 1 phase, transformer gave the following test results: OC test (HV open): 200 V, 1.3 A, 120 W SC test (LV short): 22 V, 30 A, 200 W Determine shunt and series branch parameters referred to Low Voltage Side and hence draw equivalent circuit diagram also.

Answer

Reading of the tests: "HV open" means the OC test is done on the LV winding at its rated 200 V. "LV short" means the LV winding is short-circuited while the supply is applied to the HV (400 V) winding, so the SC readings are on the HV side. Hence K=400/200=2K = 400/200 = 2, K2=4K^2 = 4.

Open-circuit test (on the LV side)

The no-load power is almost entirely core loss, so the shunt branch is found from it.

cos⁡ϕ0=P0V0I0=120200×1.3=0.4615Iw=I0cos⁡ϕ0=0.6 A,Iμ=I02−Iw2=1.153 AR0=V0Iw=333.3 Ω,X0=V0Iμ=173.4 Ω(on the LV side)\begin{aligned} \cos\phi_0 &= \frac{P_0}{V_0I_0} = \frac{120}{200\times1.3} = 0.4615 \\ I_w &= I_0\cos\phi_0 = 0.6\ \text{A},\qquad I_\mu = \sqrt{I_0^2 - I_w^2} = 1.153\ \text{A} \\ R_0 &= \frac{V_0}{I_w} = 333.3\ \Omega,\qquad X_0 = \frac{V_0}{I_\mu} = 173.4\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the LV side}) \end{aligned}

Short-circuit test (on the HV side)

At the reduced test voltage the core loss is negligible, so the wattmeter reading is the copper loss.

Zsc=VscIsc=2230=0.7333 ΩRsc=PscIsc2=200302=0.2222 ΩXsc=Zsc2−Rsc2=0.6989 Ω(on the HV side)\begin{aligned} Z_{sc} &= \frac{V_{sc}}{I_{sc}} = \frac{22}{30} = 0.7333\ \Omega \\ R_{sc} &= \frac{P_{sc}}{I_{sc}^2} = \frac{200}{30^2} = 0.2222\ \Omega \\ X_{sc} &= \sqrt{Z_{sc}^2 - R_{sc}^2} = 0.6989\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the HV side}) \end{aligned}

Referring to the LV side

The turns ratio is K=400/200=2K = 400/200 = 2, so K2=4K^2 = 4. Impedances are multiplied by K2K^2 when moved from LV to HV, and divided by K2K^2 when moved from HV to LV.

Req=0.2222÷4=0.05556 ΩXeq=0.6989÷4=0.1747 Ω\begin{aligned} R_{eq} &= 0.2222 \div 4 = 0.05556\ \Omega \\ X_{eq} &= 0.6989 \div 4 = 0.1747\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Equivalent circuit referred to the LV side

   Req=0.0556 ohm   Xeq=0.175 ohm
 o--+-----/\/\/\-----UUUU------o
    |                          
   [R0=333.3] [X0=173.4]   Load
    |      (in parallel)
 o--+---------------------------o

Req=0.05556 ΩR_{eq} = 0.05556\ \Omega, Xeq=0.1747 ΩX_{eq} = 0.1747\ \Omega (Zeq=0.1833 ΩZ_{eq} = 0.1833\ \Omega), shunt branch R0=333.3 ΩR_0 = 333.3\ \Omega in parallel with X0=173.4 ΩX_0 = 173.4\ \Omega.

Answer (referred to LV side): shunt branch R0=333.3 ΩR_0 = 333.3\ \Omega, X0=173.4 ΩX_0 = 173.4\ \Omega; series branch Req=0.0556 ΩR_{eq} = 0.0556\ \Omega, Xeq=0.1747 ΩX_{eq} = 0.1747\ \Omega

  • 2073 Bhadra (old course) · 8 marks

The data obtained from the test of a 10 kVA, 250 V/1000 V single phase transformer are given below: No-load test (on L.V side): 250 V, 0.8 A, 80 watt Short circuit test (on H.V side): 80 V, 10 A, 120 watt Calculate the equivalent circuit parameters referred to primary side and draw the equivalent circuit.

Answer

Given: 10 kVA, 250 V/1000 V. Primary = LV (250 V), K=1000/250=4K = 1000/250 = 4, K2=16K^2 = 16. Rated HV current =10 000/1000=10= 10\,000/1000 = 10 A, so the SC test is at full load.

Open-circuit test (on the LV side)

The no-load power is almost entirely core loss, so the shunt branch is found from it.

cos⁡ϕ0=P0V0I0=80250×0.8=0.4Iw=I0cos⁡ϕ0=0.32 A,Iμ=I02−Iw2=0.7332 AR0=V0Iw=781.2 Ω,X0=V0Iμ=341 Ω(on the LV side)\begin{aligned} \cos\phi_0 &= \frac{P_0}{V_0I_0} = \frac{80}{250\times0.8} = 0.4 \\ I_w &= I_0\cos\phi_0 = 0.32\ \text{A},\qquad I_\mu = \sqrt{I_0^2 - I_w^2} = 0.7332\ \text{A} \\ R_0 &= \frac{V_0}{I_w} = 781.2\ \Omega,\qquad X_0 = \frac{V_0}{I_\mu} = 341\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the LV side}) \end{aligned}

Short-circuit test (on the HV side)

At the reduced test voltage the core loss is negligible, so the wattmeter reading is the copper loss.

Zsc=VscIsc=8010=8 ΩRsc=PscIsc2=120102=1.2 ΩXsc=Zsc2−Rsc2=7.909 Ω(on the HV side)\begin{aligned} Z_{sc} &= \frac{V_{sc}}{I_{sc}} = \frac{80}{10} = 8\ \Omega \\ R_{sc} &= \frac{P_{sc}}{I_{sc}^2} = \frac{120}{10^2} = 1.2\ \Omega \\ X_{sc} &= \sqrt{Z_{sc}^2 - R_{sc}^2} = 7.909\ \Omega\quad(\text{on the HV side}) \end{aligned}

Referring to the LV side

The turns ratio is K=1000/250=4K = 1000/250 = 4, so K2=16K^2 = 16. Impedances are multiplied by K2K^2 when moved from LV to HV, and divided by K2K^2 when moved from HV to LV.

Req=1.2÷16=0.075 ΩXeq=7.909÷16=0.4943 Ω\begin{aligned} R_{eq} &= 1.2 \div 16 = 0.075\ \Omega \\ X_{eq} &= 7.909 \div 16 = 0.4943\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Equivalent circuit referred to the LV side

   Req=0.075 ohm   Xeq=0.494 ohm
 o--+-----/\/\/\-----UUUU------o
    |                          
   [R0=781.2] [X0=341]   Load
    |      (in parallel)
 o--+---------------------------o

Req=0.075 ΩR_{eq} = 0.075\ \Omega, Xeq=0.4943 ΩX_{eq} = 0.4943\ \Omega (Zeq=0.5 ΩZ_{eq} = 0.5\ \Omega), shunt branch R0=781.2 ΩR_0 = 781.2\ \Omega in parallel with X0=341 ΩX_0 = 341\ \Omega.

Answer (referred to primary): R0=781.3 ΩR_0 = 781.3\ \Omega, X0=341.0 ΩX_0 = 341.0\ \Omega, R01=0.075 ΩR_{01} = 0.075\ \Omega, X01=0.4943 ΩX_{01} = 0.4943\ \Omega (Z01=0.5 ΩZ_{01} = 0.5\ \Omega)

  • 2074 Bhadra (old course)

Open circuit and Short circuit test on 5 kVA, 220/400 V, 50 Hz, single phase transformer gave the following results. Short circuit test (on H.V. side): 40 V, 11.4 A, 200 watts [Open circuit test data is not printed in the paper] Determine the efficiency and the voltage regulation of the transformer at full load at 0.9 pf lagging.

Answer

Given: 5 kVA, 220/400 V. The SC test is on the HV side: 40 V, 11.4 A, 200 W. The open circuit data is not printed, so the core loss PiP_i cannot be calculated from the question. I derive the voltage regulation (which needs only the SC test) and give the efficiency with PiP_i left as a symbol, followed by a worked value for an assumed PiP_i.

Equivalent impedance from the SC test (HV side)

Zeq=4011.4=3.509 ΩReq=20011.42=1.539 ΩXeq=3.5092−1.5392=3.153 Ω\begin{aligned} Z_{eq} &= \frac{40}{11.4} = 3.509\ \Omega \\ R_{eq} &= \frac{200}{11.4^2} = 1.539\ \Omega \\ X_{eq} &= \sqrt{3.509^2 - 1.539^2} = 3.153\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Voltage regulation at full load, 0.9 pf lagging

Rated HV current: I=5000400=12.5I = \dfrac{5000}{400} = 12.5 A, cos⁡ϕ=0.9\cos\phi = 0.9, sin⁡ϕ=0.4359\sin\phi = 0.4359.

I(Reqcos⁡ϕ+Xeqsin⁡ϕ)=12.5(1.385+1.374)=34.49 VI(Xeqcos⁡ϕ−Reqsin⁡ϕ)=12.5(2.838−0.671)=27.09 V\begin{aligned} I(R_{eq}\cos\phi + X_{eq}\sin\phi) &= 12.5(1.385 + 1.374) = 34.49\ \text{V} \\ I(X_{eq}\cos\phi - R_{eq}\sin\phi) &= 12.5(2.838 - 0.671) = 27.09\ \text{V} \end{aligned}

Taking the no-load voltage as 400 V, the full-load terminal voltage V2V_2 follows from 4002=(V2+34.49)2+27.092400^2 = (V_2 + 34.49)^2 + 27.09^2, which gives V2=364.6V_2 = 364.6 V, so

VR=400−364.6400×100=8.85%\text{VR} = \frac{400 - 364.6}{400}\times100 = 8.85\%

(The approximate formula gives 34.49/400=8.62%34.49/400 = 8.62\%.)

Efficiency at full load, 0.9 pf lagging

The SC test current (11.4 A) is slightly below the rated 12.5 A, so the full-load copper loss is

Pcu,fl=12.52×1.539=240.5 WP_{cu,fl} = 12.5^2\times1.539 = 240.5\ \text{W} Pout=5000×0.9=4500 W,η=45004500+Pi+240.5P_{out} = 5000\times0.9 = 4500\ \text{W},\qquad \eta = \frac{4500}{4500 + P_i + 240.5}

For example, if the OC test had given Pi=100P_i = 100 W, then η=45004840.5×100=92.97%\eta = \dfrac{4500}{4840.5}\times100 = 92.97\%. For any other core loss, substitute it in the formula above.

Answer: voltage regulation ≈8.85%\approx 8.85\% (lagging); efficiency =45004740.5+Pi= \dfrac{4500}{4740.5 + P_i}, which is 92.97% for Pi=100P_i = 100 W

  • 2073 Bhadra (old course) · 8 marks

A transformer is rated at 100 kVA. At full load its copper loss is 1200 W and its iron loss is 960 W. Calculate: (i) Efficiency at full load, unity power factor (ii) Efficiency at half load, 0.8 power factor

Answer

Given: 100 kVA, Pcu,fl=1200P_{cu,fl} = 1200 W, Pi=960P_i = 960 W.

The efficiency at a load fraction xx and power factor cos⁡ϕ\cos\phi is

η=xScos⁡ϕxScos⁡ϕ+Pi+x2Pcu,fl\eta = \frac{xS\cos\phi}{xS\cos\phi + P_i + x^2P_{cu,fl}}

(i) Full load, unity power factor (x=1x = 1)

Pout=100×1=100 kWLosses=0.96+1.2=2.16 kWη=100100+2.16×100=97.89%\begin{aligned} P_{out} &= 100\times1 = 100\ \text{kW} \\ \text{Losses} &= 0.96 + 1.2 = 2.16\ \text{kW} \\ \eta &= \frac{100}{100 + 2.16}\times100 = 97.89\% \end{aligned}

(ii) Half load, 0.8 power factor (x=0.5x = 0.5)

Pout=0.5×100×0.8=40 kWPcu=0.52×1.2=0.3 kWLosses=0.96+0.3=1.26 kWη=4040+1.26×100=96.95%\begin{aligned} P_{out} &= 0.5\times100\times0.8 = 40\ \text{kW} \\ P_{cu} &= 0.5^2\times1.2 = 0.3\ \text{kW} \\ \text{Losses} &= 0.96 + 0.3 = 1.26\ \text{kW} \\ \eta &= \frac{40}{40 + 1.26}\times100 = 96.95\% \end{aligned}

Answer: (i) 97.89%; (ii) 96.95%

  • 2075 Baisakh (old course) · 4+4 marks

A 50 kVA, 4400/220 V transformer has R1=3.45 ΩR_1 = 3.45\ \Omega, R2=0.009 ΩR_2 = 0.009\ \Omega, X1=5.2 ΩX_1 = 5.2\ \Omega and X2=0.015 ΩX_2 = 0.015\ \Omega. Calculate (i) equivalent resistance, reactance and impedance as referred to both primary and secondary sides (ii) total copper loss using individual resistance of the two windings and using equivalent resistances as referred to each side.

Answer

The equivalent values are found by moving one winding's impedance to the other side using the square of the turns ratio.

Turns ratio: a=V1V2=4400220=20a = \dfrac{V_1}{V_2} = \dfrac{4400}{220} = 20

Rated currents:

I1=500004400=11.364 A,I2=50000220=227.27 AI_1 = \frac{50000}{4400} = 11.364\ \text{A}, \qquad I_2 = \frac{50000}{220} = 227.27\ \text{A}

(i) Equivalent resistance, reactance and impedance

Referred to primary:

R01=R1+a2R2=3.45+400(0.009)=7.050 ΩX01=X1+a2X2=5.2+400(0.015)=11.200 ΩZ01=R012+X012=7.0502+11.2002=13.234 Ω\begin{aligned} R_{01} &= R_1 + a^2R_2 = 3.45 + 400(0.009) = 7.050\ \Omega \\ X_{01} &= X_1 + a^2X_2 = 5.2 + 400(0.015) = 11.200\ \Omega \\ Z_{01} &= \sqrt{R_{01}^2 + X_{01}^2} = \sqrt{7.050^2 + 11.200^2} = 13.234\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Referred to secondary:

R02=R2+R1a2=0.009+3.45400=0.01762 ΩX02=X2+X1a2=0.015+5.2400=0.02800 ΩZ02=R022+X022=0.03309 Ω\begin{aligned} R_{02} &= R_2 + \frac{R_1}{a^2} = 0.009 + \frac{3.45}{400} = 0.01762\ \Omega \\ X_{02} &= X_2 + \frac{X_1}{a^2} = 0.015 + \frac{5.2}{400} = 0.02800\ \Omega \\ Z_{02} &= \sqrt{R_{02}^2 + X_{02}^2} = 0.03309\ \Omega \end{aligned}

(ii) Total copper loss

Using individual resistances:

Pcu=I12R1+I22R2=(11.364)2(3.45)+(227.27)2(0.009)=445.5+464.9=910.4 WP_{cu} = I_1^2R_1 + I_2^2R_2 = (11.364)^2(3.45) + (227.27)^2(0.009) = 445.5 + 464.9 = 910.4\ \text{W}

Using equivalent resistance referred to primary:

Pcu=I12R01=(11.364)2(7.050)=910.4 WP_{cu} = I_1^2R_{01} = (11.364)^2(7.050) = 910.4\ \text{W}

Using equivalent resistance referred to secondary:

Pcu=I22R02=(227.27)2(0.01762)=910.4 WP_{cu} = I_2^2R_{02} = (227.27)^2(0.01762) = 910.4\ \text{W}

All three methods give the same loss.

Answer: R01=7.050 ΩR_{01} = 7.050\ \Omega, X01=11.200 ΩX_{01} = 11.200\ \Omega, Z01=13.234 ΩZ_{01} = 13.234\ \Omega; R02=0.01762 ΩR_{02} = 0.01762\ \Omega, X02=0.02800 ΩX_{02} = 0.02800\ \Omega, Z02=0.03309 ΩZ_{02} = 0.03309\ \Omega; total copper loss ≈910 W\approx 910\ \text{W}.

  • 2071 Bhadra · 8 marks

A 25 kVA, single phase, 11 kV / 400 V transformer has impedance of primary and secondary 0.4+j2 Ω0.4 + j2\ \Omega and 0.02+j1 Ω0.02 + j1\ \Omega respectively. Determine the load terminal voltage and primary current at half load.

Answer

Refer all impedance to the secondary, find the voltage drop at half load, and subtract it from the no-load secondary voltage.

Assumptions: the primary is held at 11 kV, the magnetising current is neglected, and the load power factor is unity (not stated in the problem).

Step 1: Turns ratio and equivalent impedance

a=11000400=27.5,a2=756.25a = \frac{11000}{400} = 27.5, \qquad a^2 = 756.25 R02=R2+R1a2=0.02+0.4756.25=0.02053 ΩX02=X2+X1a2=1+2756.25=1.00264 Ω\begin{aligned} R_{02} &= R_2 + \frac{R_1}{a^2} = 0.02 + \frac{0.4}{756.25} = 0.02053\ \Omega \\ X_{02} &= X_2 + \frac{X_1}{a^2} = 1 + \frac{2}{756.25} = 1.00264\ \Omega \end{aligned}

Step 2: Half-load current

I2=0.5×25000400=31.25 AI_2 = \frac{0.5 \times 25000}{400} = 31.25\ \text{A}

Step 3: Load terminal voltage

No-load secondary voltage E2=400E_2 = 400 V. At unity power factor the phasor relation is E22=(V2+I2R02)2+(I2X02)2E_2^2 = (V_2 + I_2R_{02})^2 + (I_2X_{02})^2. So

V2=E22−(I2X02)2−I2R02=4002−(31.33)2−0.642=398.13 V\begin{aligned} V_2 &= \sqrt{E_2^2 - (I_2X_{02})^2} - I_2R_{02} \\ &= \sqrt{400^2 - (31.33)^2} - 0.642 \\ &= 398.13\ \text{V} \end{aligned}

Step 4: Primary current

I1=I2a=31.2527.5=1.136 AI_1 = \frac{I_2}{a} = \frac{31.25}{27.5} = 1.136\ \text{A}

Answer: load terminal voltage ≈398.13 V\approx 398.13\ \text{V} (drop of about 1.87 V) and primary current ≈1.136 A\approx 1.136\ \text{A} at half load.

  • 2070 Bhadra · 8 marks

A 230 V / 2300 V single-phase transformer is excited by 230 V ac voltage. The equivalent resistance and reactance referred to primary side are 0.1 Ω0.1\ \Omega and 0.4 Ω0.4\ \Omega respectively. Given that R0=500 ΩR_0 = 500\ \Omega and X0=200 ΩX_0 = 200\ \Omega. The load impedance is (400+j600) Ω(400 + j600)\ \Omega. Calculate: (i) primary current and input power factor (ii) secondary terminal voltage.

Answer

Refer the load to the primary and use the approximate equivalent circuit, with the exciting branch (R0R_0, X0X_0) connected across the supply.

        I'2   R01=0.1   X01=0.4
  o----->-----[ R ]-----[ X ]----+
                                 |
  V1 = 230 V   Io <- (R0 || X0)  [ Z'L = 4 + j6 ]
                  (across supply)|
  o------------------------------+

(i) Primary current and input power factor

Turns ratio: a=2300/230=10a = 2300/230 = 10 (the transformer steps up).

Load referred to primary:

ZL′=ZLa2=400+j600100=4+j6 ΩZ_L' = \frac{Z_L}{a^2} = \frac{400 + j600}{100} = 4 + j6\ \Omega

Load branch impedance seen by the supply:

Z=(R01+jX01)+ZL′=(0.1+j0.4)+(4+j6)=4.1+j6.4=7.601∠57.36∘ ΩZ = (R_{01} + jX_{01}) + Z_L' = (0.1 + j0.4) + (4 + j6) = 4.1 + j6.4 = 7.601\angle57.36^\circ\ \Omega

Load current (referred to primary), taking V1=230∠0∘V_1 = 230\angle 0^\circ:

I2′=2304.1+j6.4=30.261∠−57.36∘ A=16.323−j25.480 AI_2' = \frac{230}{4.1 + j6.4} = 30.261\angle -57.36^\circ\ \text{A} = 16.323 - j25.480\ \text{A}

No-load (exciting) current:

Ic=230500=0.46 A,Im=230200=1.15 AI0=0.46−j1.15 A\begin{aligned} I_c &= \frac{230}{500} = 0.46\ \text{A}, \qquad I_m = \frac{230}{200} = 1.15\ \text{A} \\ I_0 &= 0.46 - j1.15\ \text{A} \end{aligned}

Primary current:

I1=I2′+I0=(16.323−j25.480)+(0.46−j1.15)=16.783−j26.630 A=31.478∠−57.78∘ AI_1 = I_2' + I_0 = (16.323 - j25.480) + (0.46 - j1.15) = 16.783 - j26.630\ \text{A} = 31.478\angle -57.78^\circ\ \text{A}

Input power factor:

cos⁡ϕ1=cos⁡(57.78∘)=0.533 lagging\cos\phi_1 = \cos(57.78^\circ) = 0.533\ \text{lagging}

(ii) Secondary terminal voltage

Voltage across the referred load:

V2′=I2′ZL′=30.261×∣4+j6∣=30.261×7.211=218.21 VV_2' = I_2' Z_L' = 30.261 \times |4 + j6| = 30.261 \times 7.211 = 218.21\ \text{V} V2=a V2′=10×218.21=2182.1 VV_2 = a\,V_2' = 10 \times 218.21 = 2182.1\ \text{V}

Answer: I1=31.478 AI_1 = 31.478\ \text{A} at power factor 0.5330.533 lagging; secondary terminal voltage =2182.1 V= 2182.1\ \text{V}.

  • 2072 Asoj

A 500 kVA, 50 Hz, 6600 V/400 V, 1-phase transformer has primary and secondary winding resistances 0.4 Ω0.4\ \Omega and 0.001 Ω0.001\ \Omega respectively. If the iron loss is 3.0 kW, calculate the efficiency at (a) full load (b) half full load.

Answer

Efficiency is output divided by input. Output = x×x \times kVA ×\times p.f., and losses = iron loss + x2×x^2 \times full-load copper loss, where xx is the fraction of full load.

The power factor is not given, so unity is assumed first (values for 0.8 lagging are added at the end).

Full-load currents

I1=5000006600=75.76 A,I2=500000400=1250 AI_1 = \frac{500000}{6600} = 75.76\ \text{A}, \qquad I_2 = \frac{500000}{400} = 1250\ \text{A}

Full-load copper loss

Pcu=I12R1+I22R2=(75.76)2(0.4)+(1250)2(0.001)=2295.7+1562.5=3858.2 WP_{cu} = I_1^2R_1 + I_2^2R_2 = (75.76)^2(0.4) + (1250)^2(0.001) = 2295.7 + 1562.5 = 3858.2\ \text{W}

Iron loss Pi=3000P_i = 3000 W (constant at all loads).

(a) Full load (unity p.f.)

η=500000500000+3000+3858.2×100=500000506858.2×100=98.65%\eta = \frac{500000}{500000 + 3000 + 3858.2} \times 100 = \frac{500000}{506858.2}\times 100 = 98.65\%

(b) Half load (unity p.f.)

Copper loss at half load =(0.5)2×3858.2=964.5= (0.5)^2 \times 3858.2 = 964.5 W.

η=250000250000+3000+964.5×100=250000253964.5×100=98.44%\eta = \frac{250000}{250000 + 3000 + 964.5} \times 100 = \frac{250000}{253964.5}\times 100 = 98.44\%

Answer: efficiency at full load =98.65%= 98.65\% and at half load =98.44%= 98.44\% (unity p.f.). At 0.8 p.f. lagging the values are 98.31% (full load) and 98.06% (half load).

  • 2068 Magh · 8 marks

A 500-kVA, 3-phase, 50 Hz transformer has a voltage ratio (line voltage) of 33/11 kV and is delta/star connected. The resistances per phase are: High voltage 35 Ω35\ \Omega, low voltage 0.876 Ω0.876\ \Omega and the iron loss is 3050 W. Calculate the value of efficiency at full-load and one-half of full-load respectively at 0.8 p.f.

Answer

Copper loss is found from the phase currents and phase resistances of both windings. The HV side is delta (phase current = line current /3/\sqrt{3}) and the LV side is star (phase current = line current).

Phase currents at full load

HV (delta), line voltage = phase voltage = 33 kV:

Iph1=5000003×33000=5.051 AI_{ph1} = \frac{500000}{3 \times 33000} = 5.051\ \text{A}

LV (star), line current = phase current:

Iph2=5000003×11000=26.243 AI_{ph2} = \frac{500000}{\sqrt{3}\times 11000} = 26.243\ \text{A}

Full-load copper loss

Pcu=3(Iph12R1+Iph22R2)=3[(5.051)2(35)+(26.243)2(0.876)]=3 [892.8+603.3]=4488.2 W\begin{aligned} P_{cu} &= 3\left(I_{ph1}^2R_1 + I_{ph2}^2R_2\right) \\ &= 3\left[(5.051)^2(35) + (26.243)^2(0.876)\right] \\ &= 3\,[892.8 + 603.3] = 4488.2\ \text{W} \end{aligned}

Iron loss Pi=3050P_i = 3050 W.

Efficiency at full load (0.8 p.f.)

η=500000×0.8500000×0.8+3050+4488.2×100=400000407538.2×100=98.15%\eta = \frac{500000\times 0.8}{500000\times 0.8 + 3050 + 4488.2}\times 100 = \frac{400000}{407538.2}\times 100 = 98.15\%

Efficiency at half load (0.8 p.f.)

Copper loss =(0.5)2×4488.2=1122.1= (0.5)^2 \times 4488.2 = 1122.1 W.

η=200000200000+3050+1122.1×100=200000204172.1×100=97.96%\eta = \frac{200000}{200000 + 3050 + 1122.1}\times 100 = \frac{200000}{204172.1}\times 100 = 97.96\%

Answer: ηfull load=98.15%\eta_{\text{full load}} = 98.15\% and ηhalf load=97.96%\eta_{\text{half load}} = 97.96\% at 0.8 p.f.

  • 2066 Magh (old course) · 8 marks

A 4.2 kV/120 V, 50 Hz, 1-phase transformer has following series parameters: R1=1.4 ΩR_1 = 1.4\ \Omega, X1=3.5 ΩX_1 = 3.5\ \Omega, R2=0.04 ΩR_2 = 0.04\ \Omega, X2=0.1 ΩX_2 = 0.1\ \Omega. If the transformer draws 500 A current on the secondary at rated terminal voltage, calculate voltage regulation at unity power factor.

Answer

Voltage regulation is the change in secondary terminal voltage from no load to load, as a fraction of the rated terminal voltage:

%VR=E2−V2V2×100\%\text{VR} = \frac{E_2 - V_2}{V_2}\times 100

where E2E_2 is the no-load secondary voltage and V2V_2 is the load terminal voltage.

Equivalent parameters referred to secondary

a=4200120=35,a2=1225a = \frac{4200}{120} = 35, \qquad a^2 = 1225 R02=R2+R1a2=0.04+1.41225=0.04114 ΩX02=X2+X1a2=0.1+3.51225=0.10286 Ω\begin{aligned} R_{02} &= R_2 + \frac{R_1}{a^2} = 0.04 + \frac{1.4}{1225} = 0.04114\ \Omega \\ X_{02} &= X_2 + \frac{X_1}{a^2} = 0.1 + \frac{3.5}{1225} = 0.10286\ \Omega \end{aligned}

No-load voltage at unity p.f.

With V2=120V_2 = 120 V, I2=500I_2 = 500 A and cos⁡ϕ=1\cos\phi = 1:

E2=(V2+I2R02)2+(I2X02)2=(120+20.571)2+(51.429)2=149.684 V\begin{aligned} E_2 &= \sqrt{(V_2 + I_2R_{02})^2 + (I_2X_{02})^2} \\ &= \sqrt{(120 + 20.571)^2 + (51.429)^2} \\ &= 149.684\ \text{V} \end{aligned}

Regulation

%VR=149.684−120120×100=24.74%\%\text{VR} = \frac{149.684 - 120}{120}\times 100 = 24.74\%

Answer: voltage regulation at unity power factor =24.74%= 24.74\% (no-load secondary voltage =149.684= 149.684 V).

  • 2066 Magh (old course) · 8 marks

A 500 kVA, 50 Hz, 11 kV/400 V, 3-phase transformer has delta/star connection. Calculate the current drawn by the transformer from primary side when it delivers full load at rated terminal voltage at 0.8 lagging p.f. Assume ideal transformer operation.

Answer

For an ideal transformer, losses and voltage drops are zero, so input VA equals output VA. The primary is delta connected, so the line current is 3\sqrt{3} times the phase current.

Output at full load: S=500S = 500 kVA, power factor 0.8 lagging.

Primary line current

S=3 VLIL⇒IL1=500×1033×11000=26.24 AS = \sqrt{3}\,V_L I_L \quad\Rightarrow\quad I_{L1} = \frac{500\times 10^3}{\sqrt{3}\times 11000} = 26.24\ \text{A}

Primary phase current (delta)

Iph1=IL13=26.243=15.15 AI_{ph1} = \frac{I_{L1}}{\sqrt{3}} = \frac{26.24}{\sqrt{3}} = 15.15\ \text{A}

(Check: Iph1=5000003×11000=15.15I_{ph1} = \dfrac{500000}{3\times 11000} = 15.15 A.)

Power drawn

P=Scos⁡ϕ=500×0.8=400 kW,Q=500×0.6=300 kVARP = S\cos\phi = 500 \times 0.8 = 400\ \text{kW}, \qquad Q = 500\times 0.6 = 300\ \text{kVAR}

For an ideal transformer the input power factor equals the load power factor (0.8 lagging), so the current lags the voltage by cos⁡−10.8=36.87∘\cos^{-1}0.8 = 36.87^\circ.

Answer: the transformer draws a line current of 26.24 A26.24\ \text{A} from the 11 kV supply (phase current 15.15 A15.15\ \text{A} in each delta winding) at 0.8 lagging power factor.

Questions from Old Question Collection (EE 554) (IOE exam papers from 2065 to 2079 (EE 554 and earlier course codes)). Answers are written for this site; check them against your class notes.

Chapter titles and hours from the IOE syllabus ↗