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Practical vs ideal transformer, phasor diagram

Short answer

An ideal transformer has no resistance, no leakage, no core loss, and zero no-load current. A practical transformer has winding resistances, leakage reactances, core loss, and draws an exciting current I0. On load, V2 = E2 – I2(R2 + jX2) and I1 = I0 + I2/a, where a = N1/N2.

How practical transformer is different from ideal one? Explain with phasor diagram the operation of practical transformer when secondary is connected to load.

Practical vs ideal transformer

PointIdeal transformerPractical transformer
Winding resistanceZeroR1R_1, R2R_2 present (copper loss)
Leakage fluxNone (unity coupling)Leakage reactances X1X_1, X2X_2
Core permeabilityInfiniteFinite, needs magnetising current IμI_\mu
Core lossZeroHysteresis and eddy loss, current IcI_c
No-load currentZeroSmall I0=Ic+IμI_0 = I_c + I_\mu
Efficiency100%95 to 99%
Voltage regulationZeroNon-zero
V1/V2V_1/V_2Exactly N1/N2N_1/N_2Slightly different on load

Operation of a practical transformer on load

When load current I2I_2 flows, the secondary terminal voltage and primary current are given by

V2=E2−I2(R2+jX2),I1=I0+I1′,  I1′=N2N1I2,V1=−E1+I1(R1+jX1)V_2 = E_2 - I_2(R_2 + jX_2),\qquad I_1 = I_0 + I_1',\ \ I_1' = \frac{N_2}{N_1}I_2,\qquad V_1 = -E_1 + I_1(R_1 + jX_1)

Phasor diagram (inductive load, lagging ϕ2\phi_2):

          V1 (applied)
         /|
   I1X1/ |             Steps:
      /  | I1R1        1. Take flux phi as reference.
 -E1 /___|              2. E1, E2 lag phi by 90 deg.
     |                  3. I2 lags V2 by phi2.
     |  E2              4. E2 = V2 + I2R2 + jI2X2.
     |   \ I2X2         5. I1' = I2/a opposes the I2 mmf.
 phi |    \ I2R2        6. I1 = I0 + I1'.
     v     \V2          7. V1 = -E1 + I1R1 + jI1X1.

Steps in words:

  1. Draw the flux ϕ\phi as reference. The emfs E1E_1 and E2E_2 lag it by 90°, and −E1-E_1 is drawn opposite to E1E_1.
  2. Draw V2V_2, then I2I_2 lagging it by ϕ2\phi_2. Add I2R2I_2R_2 (parallel to I2I_2) and I2X2I_2X_2 (90° ahead) to reach E2E_2.
  3. The load component I1′I_1' is drawn opposite to I2I_2 (scaled by N2/N1N_2/N_1). The no-load current I0I_0 is drawn leading the flux by the hysteresis angle, with IμI_\mu along ϕ\phi and IcI_c along −E1-E_1.
  4. I1=I0+I1′I_1 = I_0 + I_1'. Add I1R1I_1R_1 and I1X1I_1X_1 to −E1-E_1 to get V1V_1.

The angle between V1V_1 and I1I_1 is the primary power factor angle ϕ1\phi_1, slightly different from ϕ2\phi_2 because of I0I_0 and the drops.

✓ Answer checked by Claude Opus 5.5 (high effort)

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