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Chapter 1 · 4 hours

Magnetic Circuits and Induction

IOE past exam questions

Past questions and answers

26 questions set from this chapter, 1 of them more than once. Most asked first.

  • Asked 2 times
  • 2078 Chaitra · 8 marks
  • 2070 Magh · 8 marks

Explain the hysteresis loop of a magnetic material used in electrical machine. Prove that the area of the loop is proportional to the energy loss per cycle per unit volume.

Answer

The hysteresis loop is the closed B–H curve traced by a ferromagnetic material when the magnetising force H is taken through one complete cycle (+Hmax → 0 → −Hmax → 0 → +Hmax). Because B lags behind H, the curve for decreasing H does not retrace the rising curve, and the enclosed area represents energy lost as heat in every cycle.

The hysteresis loop

               B
               |      a (saturation)
           b   |  ____*
            *--|-'   /
           /   |    /
     c    /    |   /
  ---*---/-----+--/----*--- H
        /      |  /    f
       /   ____|_*
  d  *'        |  e
               |
  • o–a: an unmagnetised sample is magnetised along the initial curve to saturation (point a).
  • a–b: when H is reduced to zero, B does not fall to zero. The value ob is the residual flux density (retentivity).
  • b–c: a reverse H is needed to make B zero. oc is the coercive force (coercivity).
  • c–d: further reverse H gives reverse saturation at d.
  • d–e–f–a: reducing H to zero gives the negative residual flux density oe, and positive H (of) is needed to bring B to zero; the loop closes at a.

Reason: the magnetic domains turn into line with H but do not all turn back when H is removed. Turning them back needs extra energy, which appears as heat.

Proof: loop area ∝ energy loss per cycle per unit volume

Take a ring of mean length ll, area AA, wound with NN turns carrying current ii.

H=Nil⇒i=HlNH = \frac{Ni}{l} \Rightarrow i = \frac{Hl}{N}

If the flux density changes by dBdB in time dtdt, the induced emf is

e=Ndϕdt=NAdBdte = N\frac{d\phi}{dt} = NA\frac{dB}{dt}

The source must supply power eiei against this emf. Energy supplied in time dtdt:

dW=e i dt=NAdBdt⋅HlN dt=(Al) H dB\begin{aligned} dW &= e\,i\,dt = NA\frac{dB}{dt}\cdot\frac{Hl}{N}\,dt \\ &= (A l)\, H\, dB \end{aligned}

Energy per unit volume (volume =Al= Al): dw=H dBdw = H\,dB. Over one complete cycle:

w=∮H dBJ/m3 per cyclew = \oint H\,dB \quad \text{J/m}^3 \text{ per cycle}

∮H dB\oint H\,dB is exactly the area enclosed by the B–H loop. Part of the energy given while B rises is returned while B falls; the difference, equal to the loop area, is lost as heat. Hence

Wh=(area of loop)×volume×fwattsW_h = (\text{area of loop}) \times \text{volume} \times f \quad \text{watts}

If the loop is drawn to scales of xx A/m per cm and yy T per cm, loop area (in J/m³) = measured area (cm²) × xyxy.

Practical result

Steinmetz found empirically Ph=ηBmax1.6fVP_h = \eta B_{max}^{1.6} f V. Machines therefore use silicon steel, whose loop is narrow (small area), to keep hysteresis loss low.

  • 2082 Kartik (new course) · 6 marks

A cast steel magnetic structure made of a bar of section 2 cm × 2 cm is shown in figure. Determine the current that the 500 turns magnetizing coil on the left limb should carry so that a flux of 2 mWb is produced in the right limb. Take μr = 600 and neglect leakage. [Figure: three-limb rectangular core; the 500-turn coil carrying current I is on the left limb A; the centre limb B carries flux Φ1 and the right limb C carries flux Φ2; the left and right windows are each 25 cm wide (left limb to centre limb 25 cm, centre limb to right limb 25 cm) and the limbs are 15 cm high; flux Φ in the left limb divides into Φ1 and Φ2.]

Answer

The centre limb and the right limb are two parallel paths between the same two junctions, so they have the same mmf drop. The left limb (with the coil) carries the total flux.

Assumed mean path lengths (from the figure): left path A = 25 + 15 + 25 = 65 cm, centre limb B = 15 cm, right path C = 25 + 15 + 25 = 65 cm. Area a=2×2=4a = 2 \times 2 = 4 cm² =4×10−4= 4\times10^{-4} m² throughout.

   +-----25-----+-----25-----+
   |            |            |
 [500T]  phi ^  | phi1  v    | phi2 v
   | A          | B (15)     | C
   +------------+------------+

Reluctances

S=lμ0μra,μ0μra=4π×10−7×600×4×10−4SA=SC=0.653.016×10−7=2.155×106 AT/WbSB=0.153.016×10−7=4.974×105 AT/Wb\begin{aligned} S &= \frac{l}{\mu_0\mu_r a}, \quad \mu_0\mu_r a = 4\pi\times10^{-7}\times600\times4\times10^{-4} \\ S_A = S_C &= \frac{0.65}{3.016\times10^{-7}} = 2.155\times10^{6}\ \text{AT/Wb} \\ S_B &= \frac{0.15}{3.016\times10^{-7}} = 4.974\times10^{5}\ \text{AT/Wb} \end{aligned}

Fluxes

MMF across the parallel limbs (B and C):

FBC=ϕ2SC=2×10−3×2.155×106=4310.4 ATϕ1=FBCSB=4310.44.974×105=8.667 mWbϕ=ϕ1+ϕ2=8.667+2=10.667 mWb\begin{aligned} F_{BC} &= \phi_2 S_C = 2\times10^{-3}\times2.155\times10^6 = 4310.4\ \text{AT} \\ \phi_1 &= \frac{F_{BC}}{S_B} = \frac{4310.4}{4.974\times10^5} = 8.667\ \text{mWb} \\ \phi &= \phi_1 + \phi_2 = 8.667 + 2 = 10.667\ \text{mWb} \end{aligned}

(Equivalently ϕ1=ϕ2×65/15\phi_1 = \phi_2 \times 65/15 because the limbs differ only in length.)

Total mmf and current

NI=ϕSA+FBC=10.667×10−3×2.155×106+4310.4=22989+4310=27299 ATI=27299500=54.6 A\begin{aligned} NI &= \phi S_A + F_{BC} \\ &= 10.667\times10^{-3}\times2.155\times10^{6} + 4310.4 \\ &= 22989 + 4310 = 27299\ \text{AT} \\ I &= \frac{27299}{500} = 54.6\ \text{A} \end{aligned}

Answer: I ≈ 54.6 A.

(Note: with μr = 600 held constant the flux densities come out very high, e.g. 5 T in the right limb; a real cast-steel core would saturate, so the result is valid only for the linear data given.)

  • 2081 Chaitra (new course) · 6 marks

A circular ring of magnetic material has a mean length of 0.8 m, cross sectional area of 120 cm² and an air gap of 5 mm. Calculate the magnetizing current required to produce a flux of 1 mWb in the air gap if the ring is wound uniformly with a coil of 220 turns. Take relative permeability of the ring material = 500 and neglect leakage and fringing.

Answer

With leakage and fringing neglected, the same flux passes through the iron and the gap, and the area is the same. Iron path length is taken as li=0.8−0.005=0.795l_i = 0.8 - 0.005 = 0.795 m.

Data: ϕ=1\phi = 1 mWb, A=120A = 120 cm² =0.012= 0.012 m², lg=5l_g = 5 mm, N=220N = 220, μr=500\mu_r = 500.

Flux density

B=ϕA=1×10−30.012=0.0833 TB = \frac{\phi}{A} = \frac{1\times10^{-3}}{0.012} = 0.0833\ \text{T}

Ampere-turns for the air gap

Hg=Bμ0=0.08334π×10−7=66315 AT/mATg=Hglg=66315×0.005=331.6 AT\begin{aligned} H_g &= \frac{B}{\mu_0} = \frac{0.0833}{4\pi\times10^{-7}} = 66315\ \text{AT/m} \\ AT_g &= H_g l_g = 66315 \times 0.005 = 331.6\ \text{AT} \end{aligned}

Ampere-turns for the iron

Hi=Bμ0μr=66315500=132.6 AT/mATi=Hili=132.6×0.795=105.4 AT\begin{aligned} H_i &= \frac{B}{\mu_0\mu_r} = \frac{66315}{500} = 132.6\ \text{AT/m} \\ AT_i &= H_i l_i = 132.6 \times 0.795 = 105.4\ \text{AT} \end{aligned}

Magnetising current

NI=331.6+105.4=437.0 ATI=437.0220=1.986 A\begin{aligned} NI &= 331.6 + 105.4 = 437.0\ \text{AT} \\ I &= \frac{437.0}{220} = 1.986\ \text{A} \end{aligned}

Answer: magnetising current ≈ 1.99 A. (Taking the iron length as the full 0.8 m gives 1.989 A, practically the same.) Note that the 5 mm gap needs about three times the ampere-turns of the 0.795 m of iron.

  • 2080 Chaitra · 4+4 marks

For a non-linear characteristic of BH relationship of a transformer core, what would be the nature of current for sinusoidal excitation? Explain with necessary expression and figures.

Answer

For a sinusoidal supply voltage the core flux is forced to be sinusoidal; because the B–H (φ–i) curve is non-linear (saturation and hysteresis), the exciting current is non-sinusoidal. It is peaky and contains odd harmonics, mainly the 3rd.

Why the flux is sinusoidal

Neglecting winding resistance and leakage,

v=Vmcos⁡ωt=Ndϕdt⇒ϕ=VmNωsin⁡ωt=ϕmsin⁡ωtv = V_m \cos\omega t = N\frac{d\phi}{dt} \Rightarrow \phi = \frac{V_m}{N\omega}\sin\omega t = \phi_m \sin\omega t

So the flux follows the voltage waveform, whatever the core is like. The current needed for each value of flux is then read from the φ–i curve.

Shape of the exciting current (graphical method)

 phi-i curve            waveforms vs time
   phi                  phi (sine)   i0 (peaky)
    |    ___              |   _          ^
    |  /                  | /   \       / \
    | /                   |/     \  __./   \.__
 ---+------ i0         ---+-------\----------- t
   /|                             \_/
 _/ |

Steps: for each instant take φ from the sine wave, find the matching i on the φ–i curve, and plot i against time.

  1. Saturation only (no hysteresis): near the peak of φ the core is saturated, so a small extra flux needs a large current. The current is peaked, symmetric about the flux peak, and in phase with φ. It contains the fundamental plus large 3rd, 5th, … harmonics.
  2. With hysteresis: the rising and falling branches differ, so the current wave is also unsymmetrical and its zero crossings come before those of the flux. The current leads the flux slightly.

Expression and components

The exciting current can be written as a Fourier series of odd harmonics:

i0(t)=I1sin⁡(ωt+θ1)+I3sin⁡(3ωt+θ3)+I5sin⁡(5ωt+θ5)+…i_0(t) = I_1\sin(\omega t + \theta_1) + I_3\sin(3\omega t + \theta_3) + I_5\sin(5\omega t + \theta_5) + \dots

The fundamental component is split into:

  • Magnetising current Im=I0sin⁡ϕ0I_m = I_0 \sin\phi_0, in phase with φ (lags V by 90°); it sets up the flux.
  • Core-loss current Ic=I0cos⁡ϕ0I_c = I_0\cos\phi_0, in phase with V; it supplies hysteresis and eddy losses, Pc=VIcP_c = V I_c.
I0=Im2+Ic2I_0 = \sqrt{I_m^2 + I_c^2}

Consequences

  • The 3rd harmonic is typically 30–40% of the fundamental in a transformer worked near the knee.
  • In three-phase banks, a delta winding or a neutral path is provided for these 3rd-harmonic currents; otherwise the flux and voltages become distorted.
  • Because I0I_0 is only 2–5% of rated current, the distortion is usually neglected and an equivalent sine wave is used in the equivalent circuit.
  • 2080 Chaitra · 8 marks

The magnetic core with three excitation windings is shown in figure below. The mean length lA, l1 and l2 is 50 cm, 20 cm and 10 cm respectively. The length of air gap g is 10 mm. The number of turns N1 and N is 1000 and 500. If iA, iB and i1 are 20, 15 and 10 amperes, what would be the magnetic flux density at the air gap. The core area Ac = 20 cm² and relative permeability of core is μr = 4000. [Figure: rectangular core with a centre limb; the centre limb carries the N1-turn winding (current i1) and contains the air gap g; the left and right outer limbs each carry an N-turn winding with currents iA and iB respectively; lA is the outer path length, l1 and l2 are the centre-limb lengths above and below.]

Answer

Treat the core as a two-loop magnetic circuit. Assumption (polarities are not given): all three windings are connected so that their mmfs drive flux in the same sense through the centre limb, i.e. the outer coils push flux up the outer limbs and the centre coil pushes it down the centre limb. Each outer path has length lA=50l_A = 50 cm; the centre limb has iron l1+l2=30l_1 + l_2 = 30 cm plus the 10 mm gap. Fringing is neglected.

   +----------+----------+
   |  phiA ^  |  phic v  |  phiB ^
 [N iA]       [N1 i1]  [N iB]
   |          |   g      |
   +----------+----------+

MMFs

FA=500×20=10000 AT,FB=500×15=7500 AT,F1=1000×10=10000 ATF_A = 500\times20 = 10000\ \text{AT}, \quad F_B = 500\times15 = 7500\ \text{AT}, \quad F_1 = 1000\times10 = 10000\ \text{AT}

Reluctances (Ac=20×10−4A_c = 20\times10^{-4} m², μr=4000\mu_r = 4000)

SA=SB=0.54π×10−7×4000×20×10−4=4.974×104 AT/WbScore,c=0.34π×10−7×4000×20×10−4=2.984×104 AT/WbSg=0.014π×10−7×20×10−4=3.979×106 AT/WbSc=Score,c+Sg=4.009×106 AT/Wb\begin{aligned} S_A = S_B &= \frac{0.5}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times4000\times20\times10^{-4}} = 4.974\times10^{4}\ \text{AT/Wb} \\ S_{core,c} &= \frac{0.3}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times4000\times20\times10^{-4}} = 2.984\times10^{4}\ \text{AT/Wb} \\ S_g &= \frac{0.01}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times20\times10^{-4}} = 3.979\times10^{6}\ \text{AT/Wb} \\ S_c &= S_{core,c} + S_g = 4.009\times10^{6}\ \text{AT/Wb} \end{aligned}

Node equation

Let UU be the magnetic potential of the top junction relative to the bottom. Then ϕA=(FA−U)/SA\phi_A = (F_A - U)/S_A, ϕB=(FB−U)/SB\phi_B = (F_B - U)/S_B, ϕc=(U+F1)/Sc\phi_c = (U + F_1)/S_c, and ϕc=ϕA+ϕB\phi_c = \phi_A + \phi_B:

U=FA/SA+FB/SB−F1/Sc1/SA+1/SB+1/Sc=8634 ATϕc=8634+100004.009×106=4.648×10−3 Wb\begin{aligned} U &= \frac{F_A/S_A + F_B/S_B - F_1/S_c}{1/S_A + 1/S_B + 1/S_c} = 8634\ \text{AT} \\ \phi_c &= \frac{8634 + 10000}{4.009\times10^{6}} = 4.648\times10^{-3}\ \text{Wb} \end{aligned}

(The outer limbs carry ϕA=27.46\phi_A = 27.46 mWb up and ϕB=−22.81\phi_B = -22.81 mWb, i.e. 22.81 mWb down; their sum is 4.65 mWb.)

Flux density in the air gap

Bg=ϕcAc=4.648×10−320×10−4=2.32 TB_g = \frac{\phi_c}{A_c} = \frac{4.648\times10^{-3}}{20\times10^{-4}} = 2.32\ \text{T}

Answer: Bg≈2.32B_g \approx 2.32 T (for the assumed winding polarities, linear core, no fringing). Because the gap reluctance is about 80 times that of the iron, Bg≈μ0(Fˉouter+F1)/gB_g \approx \mu_0(\bar F_{outer} + F_1)/g, so the result is mainly set by the gap.

  • 2079 Chaitra · 2+3+3 marks

List out the similarities between magnetic circuit and electric circuit. Deduce work law and Ohm's law for magnetic circuit.

Answer

A magnetic circuit is the closed path followed by magnetic flux, e.g. the iron core of a transformer with its air gaps. It behaves much like an electric circuit, with mmf driving flux against reluctance.

Similarities

Magnetic circuitElectric circuit
MMF, F=NIF = NI (AT)EMF, EE (V)
Flux, ϕ\phi (Wb)Current, II (A)
Reluctance, S=l/μAS = l/\mu A (AT/Wb)Resistance, R=ρl/AR = \rho l/A (Ω)
Permeance, 1/S1/SConductance, 1/R1/R
Permeability, μ\muConductivity, σ=1/ρ\sigma = 1/\rho
Flux density, B=ϕ/AB = \phi/ACurrent density, J=I/AJ = I/A
Field intensity, HH (AT/m)Electric field, EE (V/m)
ϕ=F/S\phi = F/SI=E/RI = E/R
Series: S=S1+S2+…S = S_1 + S_2 + \dotsSeries: R=R1+R2+…R = R_1 + R_2 + \dots

Differences (in brief): flux does not actually flow and needs no energy to keep it up, while current does; μ\mu changes with B (saturation), while R is nearly constant.

Work law (Ampere's circuital law)

The work done in moving a unit magnetic pole once round a closed path equals the ampere-turns enclosed:

∮H⃗⋅dl⃗=NI\oint \vec H \cdot d\vec l = NI

For a path made of sections in which H is constant,

H1l1+H2l2+⋯=NI=FH_1 l_1 + H_2 l_2 + \dots = NI = F

So the total mmf equals the sum of the "magnetic drops" HlHl round the circuit, just as KVL says the emf equals the sum of IR drops.

Ohm's law for a magnetic circuit

Take a ring of mean length ll, area AA, permeability μ=μ0μr\mu = \mu_0\mu_r, with NN turns carrying II. From the work law H=NI/lH = NI/l. Then

B=μH=μNIlϕ=BA=μANIl=NIl/(μA)\begin{aligned} B &= \mu H = \frac{\mu NI}{l} \\ \phi &= BA = \frac{\mu A NI}{l} = \frac{NI}{l/(\mu A)} \end{aligned} ϕ=FS,S=lμ0μrA\phi = \frac{F}{S}, \quad S = \frac{l}{\mu_0 \mu_r A}

i.e. flux = mmf / reluctance, the magnetic form of I=V/RI = V/R.

  • 2078 Baisakh · 8 marks

Explain hysteresis phenomenon with ac excitation.

Answer

Hysteresis is the lagging of flux density B behind the magnetising force H in a ferromagnetic material. Under ac excitation H goes through a full cycle every period, so the material traces a closed hysteresis loop each cycle and loses energy as heat.

Mechanism

  • A ferromagnetic material is made of small domains, each fully magnetised. With no field they point randomly, so the net B is zero.
  • As H rises, domains in line with H grow and others turn, so B rises steeply and then saturates when almost all are aligned.
  • When H is reduced, many domains do not turn back; B stays higher than on the rising curve. Turning them back requires work, which is lost as heat. This is the cause of hysteresis.

Hysteresis loop with ac excitation

              B
              |   ___ a  (+Bmax)
          b  _|-'   /
            / |    /
     c     /  |   /    
  --*-----/---+--/---*--- H
         /    | /    f
        /  ___|'
   d  _/-'    |e
   (-Bmax)    |

With an ac current i=Imsin⁡ωti = I_m \sin\omega t, H varies sinusoidally between +Hm+H_m and −Hm-H_m:

  1. H rises 0 → +Hm+H_m: B rises to +Bm+B_m (point a).
  2. H falls to 0: B falls only to residual flux density BrB_r (point b), called retentivity.
  3. H reversed to −Hc-H_c: B becomes zero (point c); HcH_c is the coercive force.
  4. H to −Hm-H_m: B reaches −Bm-B_m (point d).
  5. H back through 0 (−Br-B_r, point e) and +Hc+H_c (point f) to +Hm+H_m: the loop closes.

The loop is traced f times per second. For each cycle the energy lost per unit volume is ∮H dB\oint H\,dB, the area of the loop.

Hysteresis loss

Ph=η Bm1.6f VWP_h = \eta\, B_m^{1.6} f\, V \quad \text{W}

where η\eta is the Steinmetz coefficient (J/m³), BmB_m the peak flux density, ff the frequency and VV the core volume. The index 1.6 varies from 1.5 to 2.5 for different materials.

Effects in machines

  • Heats the core and lowers efficiency of transformers, motors and generators.
  • Makes the exciting current non-sinusoidal and slightly leading the flux (core-loss component).
  • Reduced by using soft magnetic materials (silicon steel, CRGO steel) with a narrow loop, and by keeping BmB_m moderate.
  • 2078 Baisakh · 8 marks

A ferromagnetic core with a relative permeability of 4000 is shown below. The dimensional area as shown and depth of core is 7 cm. The air gap is 0.05 cm on left and 0.07 cm on right side. The effective area of gap is 5% larger due to fringing effect. If current in coil is 10 A, calculate flux in left, right and middle part along with flux density in each air gap. [Figure: three-limb core; all limbs and yokes are 7 cm wide; the two windows are each 30 cm wide and 30 cm high; the centre limb carries a 300-turn coil with current i; the left outer limb has a 0.05 cm air gap and the right outer limb has a 0.07 cm air gap.]

Answer

The centre limb (with the coil) carries the total flux, which divides between the left and right outer paths. Each outer path contains an air gap, so the two outer paths are in parallel and both are in series with the centre limb.

Dimensions: limbs 7 cm wide, depth 7 cm → A=49A = 49 cm² =4.9×10−3= 4.9\times10^{-3} m². Windows 30 × 30 cm, so the centre-line spacing is 30 + 7 = 37 cm.

  • Centre limb: lc=37l_c = 37 cm.
  • Each outer path: top yoke 37 + outer limb 37 + bottom yoke 37 = 111 cm (minus its gap).
  • Gap area with 5% fringing: Ag=1.05×49=51.45A_g = 1.05 \times 49 = 51.45 cm².
  • MMF: F=300×10=3000F = 300 \times 10 = 3000 AT.

Reluctances (μ0μrA=4π×10−7×4000×4.9×10−3=2.463×10−5\mu_0\mu_r A = 4\pi\times10^{-7}\times4000\times4.9\times10^{-3} = 2.463\times10^{-5})

Sc=0.372.463×10−5=15022 AT/WbSL,iron=1.10952.463×10−5=45047,SL,gap=0.00054π×10−7×5.145×10−3=77335SL=45047+77335=122381 AT/WbSR,iron=1.10932.463×10−5=45038,SR,gap=0.00074π×10−7×5.145×10−3=108269SR=45038+108269=153307 AT/Wb\begin{aligned} S_c &= \frac{0.37}{2.463\times10^{-5}} = 15022\ \text{AT/Wb} \\ S_{L,iron} &= \frac{1.1095}{2.463\times10^{-5}} = 45047, \quad S_{L,gap} = \frac{0.0005}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times5.145\times10^{-3}} = 77335 \\ S_L &= 45047 + 77335 = 122381\ \text{AT/Wb} \\ S_{R,iron} &= \frac{1.1093}{2.463\times10^{-5}} = 45038, \quad S_{R,gap} = \frac{0.0007}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times5.145\times10^{-3}} = 108269 \\ S_R &= 45038 + 108269 = 153307\ \text{AT/Wb} \end{aligned}

Total reluctance and fluxes

SL∥SR=122381×153307122381+153307=68055 AT/WbStot=15022+68055=83077 AT/Wbϕc=300083077=0.03611 WbFLR=ϕc×68055=2457.6 ATϕL=2457.6122381=0.02008 Wb,ϕR=2457.6153307=0.01603 Wb\begin{aligned} S_L \parallel S_R &= \frac{122381\times153307}{122381+153307} = 68055\ \text{AT/Wb} \\ S_{tot} &= 15022 + 68055 = 83077\ \text{AT/Wb} \\ \phi_c &= \frac{3000}{83077} = 0.03611\ \text{Wb} \\ F_{LR} &= \phi_c \times 68055 = 2457.6\ \text{AT} \\ \phi_L &= \frac{2457.6}{122381} = 0.02008\ \text{Wb}, \quad \phi_R = \frac{2457.6}{153307} = 0.01603\ \text{Wb} \end{aligned}

Flux density in the gaps

BgL=0.020085.145×10−3=3.90 T,BgR=0.016035.145×10−3=3.12 TB_{gL} = \frac{0.02008}{5.145\times10^{-3}} = 3.90\ \text{T}, \quad B_{gR} = \frac{0.01603}{5.145\times10^{-3}} = 3.12\ \text{T}

Answer: ϕmiddle=36.1\phi_{middle} = 36.1 mWb, ϕleft=20.1\phi_{left} = 20.1 mWb, ϕright=16.0\phi_{right} = 16.0 mWb; Bgap,left=3.90B_{gap,left} = 3.90 T, Bgap,right=3.12B_{gap,right} = 3.12 T. (These densities are far above saturation of real iron; the result holds only for the constant μr = 4000 given.)

  • 2077 Chaitra · 8 marks

An iron ring has mean length of 80 cm and cross sectional area of 16 sq. cm. and has a radial air gap of 2 mm. The core is wound with a coil of 1000 turns. If a current of 6 amp is passed through the coil, calculate the magnetic flux and magnetic flux density in the core. Given that the relative permeability of the core is 2000.

Answer

Flux is found from ϕ=NI/(Si+Sg)\phi = NI/(S_i + S_g). Iron length is taken as li=80−0.2=79.8l_i = 80 - 0.2 = 79.8 cm; gap area = core area (no fringing).

Data: A=16A = 16 cm² =16×10−4= 16\times10^{-4} m², lg=2l_g = 2 mm, N=1000N = 1000, I=6I = 6 A, μr=2000\mu_r = 2000.

MMF

F=NI=1000×6=6000 ATF = NI = 1000 \times 6 = 6000\ \text{AT}

Reluctances

Si=liμ0μrA=0.7984π×10−7×2000×16×10−4=1.984×105 AT/WbSg=lgμ0A=0.0024π×10−7×16×10−4=9.947×105 AT/WbS=Si+Sg=1.193×106 AT/Wb\begin{aligned} S_i &= \frac{l_i}{\mu_0\mu_r A} = \frac{0.798}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times2000\times16\times10^{-4}} = 1.984\times10^{5}\ \text{AT/Wb} \\ S_g &= \frac{l_g}{\mu_0 A} = \frac{0.002}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times16\times10^{-4}} = 9.947\times10^{5}\ \text{AT/Wb} \\ S &= S_i + S_g = 1.193\times10^{6}\ \text{AT/Wb} \end{aligned}

Flux and flux density

ϕ=FS=60001.193×106=5.03×10−3 WbB=ϕA=5.03×10−316×10−4=3.14 T\begin{aligned} \phi &= \frac{F}{S} = \frac{6000}{1.193\times10^{6}} = 5.03\times10^{-3}\ \text{Wb} \\ B &= \frac{\phi}{A} = \frac{5.03\times10^{-3}}{16\times10^{-4}} = 3.14\ \text{T} \end{aligned}

Answer: φ ≈ 5.03 mWb, B ≈ 3.14 T in the core (and in the gap). The 2 mm gap has five times the reluctance of the whole iron path. (If the full 80 cm is used as iron length, φ = 5.02 mWb; the difference is negligible.)

  • 2076 Bhadra · 8 marks

What is meant by statically and dynamically induced emf? On what factors do these depend? Give practical example of each.

Answer

By Faraday's law an emf is induced in a conductor whenever the flux linking it changes. If the change is caused by movement of the conductor (or field) it is a dynamically induced emf; if the conductor and field are both still and the flux itself changes with time, it is a statically induced emf.

Dynamically induced (motional) emf

A conductor of length ll moving with velocity vv at angle θ\theta to a field of flux density BB cuts flux and has an emf

e=B l vsin⁡θVe = B\,l\,v\sin\theta \quad \text{V}

Direction is given by Fleming's right-hand rule.

Depends on:

  • flux density B,
  • active length of conductor l,
  • speed v,
  • angle θ between the motion and the field (maximum at 90°).

Example: the armature conductors of a dc generator or the stator conductors of an alternator; the emf of a dc generator is E=ϕZNP60AE = \frac{\phi Z N P}{60A}.

Statically induced emf

The conductor is stationary and the flux linking it changes. Two kinds:

(a) Self-induced emf: emf induced in a coil by the change of its own current.

e=−Ldidt,L=NϕI=N2S=μ0μrN2Ale = -L\frac{di}{dt}, \quad L = \frac{N\phi}{I} = \frac{N^2}{S} = \frac{\mu_0\mu_r N^2 A}{l}

Depends on the number of turns, the reluctance (core material, length, area) and the rate of change of current. Example: the emf in a choke or the spark across a switch when an inductive circuit is opened.

(b) Mutually induced emf: emf induced in one coil by the change of current in a nearby coil.

e2=−Mdi1dt,M=kL1L2e_2 = -M\frac{di_1}{dt}, \quad M = k\sqrt{L_1L_2}

Depends on the turns of both coils, the reluctance of the common path, the coupling coefficient kk, and di1/dtdi_1/dt. Example: the transformer, where an alternating primary current induces an emf in the secondary: E=4.44fNϕmE = 4.44 f N \phi_m.

Comparison

PointDynamically inducedStatically induced
CauseRelative motion of conductor and fieldTime change of flux
MotionNeededNo motion
Formulae=Blvsin⁡θe = Blv\sin\thetae=N dϕ/dte = N\,d\phi/dt
Energy conversionMechanical ↔ electricalElectrical ↔ electrical
ExampleDC generator, alternatorTransformer, inductor
  • 2076 Bhadra · 8 marks

A wrought iron bar of 30 cm long and 2 cm in diameter is bent into circular shape. It is wound 600 turns of winding. Calculate the current required to produce a flux of 0.05 mWb in the core in the following two cases: a) with no air gap b) with an air gap of 4 mm. Given that μr = 4000.

Answer

The bar length becomes the mean length of the ring. Area is that of a 2 cm diameter circle.

A=πd24=π(0.02)24=3.1416×10−4 m2A = \frac{\pi d^2}{4} = \frac{\pi (0.02)^2}{4} = 3.1416\times10^{-4}\ \text{m}^2 B=ϕA=0.05×10−33.1416×10−4=0.1592 TB = \frac{\phi}{A} = \frac{0.05\times10^{-3}}{3.1416\times10^{-4}} = 0.1592\ \text{T}

a) No air gap (li=0.30l_i = 0.30 m)

Hi=Bμ0μr=0.15924π×10−7×4000=31.66 AT/mNI=Hili=31.66×0.30=9.50 ATI=9.50600=0.0158 A\begin{aligned} H_i &= \frac{B}{\mu_0\mu_r} = \frac{0.1592}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times4000} = 31.66\ \text{AT/m} \\ NI &= H_i l_i = 31.66\times0.30 = 9.50\ \text{AT} \\ I &= \frac{9.50}{600} = 0.0158\ \text{A} \end{aligned}

Answer (a): I ≈ 15.8 mA.

b) With a 4 mm air gap

The gap is cut from the same bar, so iron length li=0.30−0.004=0.296l_i = 0.30 - 0.004 = 0.296 m.

Hg=Bμ0=0.15924π×10−7=126651 AT/mATg=126651×0.004=506.6 ATATi=31.66×0.296=9.37 ATNI=506.6+9.37=516.0 ATI=516.0600=0.860 A\begin{aligned} H_g &= \frac{B}{\mu_0} = \frac{0.1592}{4\pi\times10^{-7}} = 126651\ \text{AT/m} \\ AT_g &= 126651\times0.004 = 506.6\ \text{AT} \\ AT_i &= 31.66\times0.296 = 9.37\ \text{AT} \\ NI &= 506.6 + 9.37 = 516.0\ \text{AT} \\ I &= \frac{516.0}{600} = 0.860\ \text{A} \end{aligned}

Answer (b): I ≈ 0.86 A.

A gap of only 4 mm raises the required current about 54 times, because the reluctance of air is 4000 times that of the same length of iron.

  • 2076 Baisakh · 8 marks

A magnetic circuit with a single air gap is shown in fig below. The core dimensions are: Cross-sectional area Ac = 1.8×10⁻³ m², Mean core length lc = 0.6 m, Gap length g = 2.3×10⁻³ m, N1 = 83 turns, N2 = 20. Assume that the core relative permeability of 2000. i) Calculate the reluctance of the core and that of the gap Rg. For a current of i1 = 1.5 A and i2 = 1.25 A calculate ii) The total flux φ in the air gap. [Figure: rectangular core; winding N1 (current i1) on the left limb and winding N2 (current i2) on the right limb; a single air gap in the bottom yoke near the right limb.]

Answer

Both windings are on the same single-loop core, so their mmfs add (assuming they are wound to aid each other) and drive one flux through the core and gap in series. Gap area is taken equal to core area (fringing neglected).

i) Reluctances

Rc=lcμ0μrAc=0.64π×10−7×2000×1.8×10−3=1.326×105 AT/WbRg=gμ0Ac=2.3×10−34π×10−7×1.8×10−3=1.017×106 AT/Wb\begin{aligned} R_c &= \frac{l_c}{\mu_0\mu_r A_c} = \frac{0.6}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times2000\times1.8\times10^{-3}} = 1.326\times10^{5}\ \text{AT/Wb} \\ R_g &= \frac{g}{\mu_0 A_c} = \frac{2.3\times10^{-3}}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times1.8\times10^{-3}} = 1.017\times10^{6}\ \text{AT/Wb} \end{aligned}

Total reluctance: R=Rc+Rg=1.149×106R = R_c + R_g = 1.149\times10^{6} AT/Wb.

ii) Flux in the air gap

F=N1i1+N2i2=83×1.5+20×1.25=124.5+25=149.5 ATϕ=FR=149.51.149×106=1.30×10−4 Wb\begin{aligned} F &= N_1 i_1 + N_2 i_2 = 83\times1.5 + 20\times1.25 = 124.5 + 25 = 149.5\ \text{AT} \\ \phi &= \frac{F}{R} = \frac{149.5}{1.149\times10^{6}} = 1.30\times10^{-4}\ \text{Wb} \end{aligned}

Gap flux density: Bg=ϕ/Ac=1.30×10−4/1.8×10−3=0.0723B_g = \phi/A_c = 1.30\times10^{-4}/1.8\times10^{-3} = 0.0723 T.

Answer: Rc=1.33×105R_c = 1.33\times10^5 AT/Wb, Rg=1.02×106R_g = 1.02\times10^6 AT/Wb, ϕ=0.130\phi = 0.130 mWb (B = 0.072 T).

(If the two windings opposed each other, F=124.5−25=99.5F = 124.5 - 25 = 99.5 AT and ϕ=0.0866\phi = 0.0866 mWb.)

  • 2075 Bhadra · 8 marks

Find the value of I required to establish a magnetic flux of Φ = 0.75×10⁻⁴ Wb in the series magnetic circuit as shown in figure below. Given, that the relative permeability for the steel is μr = 1424. [Figure: all cast steel rectangular core, area (throughout) = 1.5×10⁻⁴ m²; coil of N = 200 turns carrying current I on the left limb; an air gap in the right limb; mean steel path length l(cdefab) = 100×10⁻³ m and air gap length l(bc) = 2×10⁻³ m.]

Answer

The steel path and the air gap are in series and carry the same flux; the area is the same throughout (fringing neglected).

Data: ϕ=0.75×10−4\phi = 0.75\times10^{-4} Wb, A=1.5×10−4A = 1.5\times10^{-4} m², ls=100×10−3l_s = 100\times10^{-3} m, lg=2×10−3l_g = 2\times10^{-3} m, μr=1424\mu_r = 1424, N=200N = 200.

Flux density

B=ϕA=0.75×10−41.5×10−4=0.5 TB = \frac{\phi}{A} = \frac{0.75\times10^{-4}}{1.5\times10^{-4}} = 0.5\ \text{T}

Steel portion

Hs=Bμ0μr=0.54π×10−7×1424=279.4 AT/mHsls=279.4×0.1=27.9 AT\begin{aligned} H_s &= \frac{B}{\mu_0\mu_r} = \frac{0.5}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times1424} = 279.4\ \text{AT/m} \\ H_s l_s &= 279.4\times0.1 = 27.9\ \text{AT} \end{aligned}

Air gap

Hg=Bμ0=0.54π×10−7=3.979×105 AT/mHglg=3.979×105×2×10−3=795.8 AT\begin{aligned} H_g &= \frac{B}{\mu_0} = \frac{0.5}{4\pi\times10^{-7}} = 3.979\times10^{5}\ \text{AT/m} \\ H_g l_g &= 3.979\times10^{5}\times2\times10^{-3} = 795.8\ \text{AT} \end{aligned}

Current

NI=27.9+795.8=823.7 ATI=823.7200=4.12 A\begin{aligned} NI &= 27.9 + 795.8 = 823.7\ \text{AT} \\ I &= \frac{823.7}{200} = 4.12\ \text{A} \end{aligned}

Answer: I ≈ 4.12 A. About 97% of the mmf is used by the 2 mm air gap.

  • 2075 Baisakh · 8 marks

A mild steel ring of 30 cm mean circumference has a cross-sectional area of 6 cm² and has a winding of 500 turns on it. The ring is cut through at a point so as to provide an air gap of 1 mm in the magnetic circuit. It is found that a current of 4 A in the winding produces a flux density of 1 T in the air gap. Find (i) the relative permeability of the mild steel and (ii) inductance of the winding.

Answer

Total mmf = gap ampere-turns + iron ampere-turns. Iron length = 30 − 0.1 = 29.9 cm. Same B in iron and gap (no leakage or fringing).

Data: l=0.30l = 0.30 m, A=6A = 6 cm² =6×10−4= 6\times10^{-4} m², N=500N = 500, lg=1l_g = 1 mm, I=4I = 4 A, B=1B = 1 T.

(i) Relative permeability

NI=500×4=2000 ATATg=Bμ0lg=14π×10−7×10−3=795.8 ATATi=2000−795.8=1204.2 ATHi=1204.20.299=4027.5 AT/mμr=Bμ0Hi=14π×10−7×4027.5=197.6\begin{aligned} NI &= 500\times4 = 2000\ \text{AT} \\ AT_g &= \frac{B}{\mu_0} l_g = \frac{1}{4\pi\times10^{-7}}\times10^{-3} = 795.8\ \text{AT} \\ AT_i &= 2000 - 795.8 = 1204.2\ \text{AT} \\ H_i &= \frac{1204.2}{0.299} = 4027.5\ \text{AT/m} \\ \mu_r &= \frac{B}{\mu_0 H_i} = \frac{1}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times4027.5} = 197.6 \end{aligned}

(ii) Inductance

ϕ=BA=1×6×10−4=6×10−4 WbL=NϕI=500×6×10−44=0.075 H\begin{aligned} \phi &= BA = 1\times6\times10^{-4} = 6\times10^{-4}\ \text{Wb} \\ L &= \frac{N\phi}{I} = \frac{500\times6\times10^{-4}}{4} = 0.075\ \text{H} \end{aligned}

Answer: μr ≈ 198, L = 0.075 H (75 mH). (Taking the iron length as the full 30 cm gives μr ≈ 198 as well.)

  • 2074 Bhadra · 8 marks

A magnetic core consists of circular ring with outer diameter 5.5 cm and inner diameter 3.5 cm. The relative permeability of the iron is 2000. A radial airgap of 2 mm is cut in this core. Calculate the direct current that will be required in a coil of 1000 turns uniformly distributed around the core to produce a magnetic flux of 0.3 mWb in the airgap. Assume the magnetic leakage is negligible.

Answer

Assumption: the ring has a circular cross-section whose diameter equals the radial width, (5.5−3.5)/2=1(5.5 - 3.5)/2 = 1 cm.

Dimensions

Dmean=5.5+3.52=4.5 cmlmean=πDmean=π×0.045=0.1414 mli=0.1414−0.002=0.1394 mA=π(0.01)24=7.854×10−5 m2\begin{aligned} D_{mean} &= \frac{5.5 + 3.5}{2} = 4.5\ \text{cm} \\ l_{mean} &= \pi D_{mean} = \pi\times0.045 = 0.1414\ \text{m} \\ l_i &= 0.1414 - 0.002 = 0.1394\ \text{m} \\ A &= \frac{\pi(0.01)^2}{4} = 7.854\times10^{-5}\ \text{m}^2 \end{aligned}

Flux density

B=ϕA=0.3×10−37.854×10−5=3.82 TB = \frac{\phi}{A} = \frac{0.3\times10^{-3}}{7.854\times10^{-5}} = 3.82\ \text{T}

Ampere-turns

ATg=Bμ0lg=3.824π×10−7×0.002=3.0396×106×0.002=6079 ATATi=Bμ0μrli=3.0396×1062000×0.1394=1519.8×0.1394=211.8 ATNI=6079+211.8=6291 AT\begin{aligned} AT_g &= \frac{B}{\mu_0} l_g = \frac{3.82}{4\pi\times10^{-7}}\times0.002 = 3.0396\times10^{6}\times0.002 = 6079\ \text{AT} \\ AT_i &= \frac{B}{\mu_0\mu_r} l_i = \frac{3.0396\times10^{6}}{2000}\times0.1394 = 1519.8\times0.1394 = 211.8\ \text{AT} \\ NI &= 6079 + 211.8 = 6291\ \text{AT} \end{aligned}

Current

I=62911000=6.29 AI = \frac{6291}{1000} = 6.29\ \text{A}

Answer: I ≈ 6.29 A (dc). (B = 3.82 T is beyond the saturation of real iron; the answer assumes μr stays 2000. If a square 1 cm × 1 cm section is assumed instead, A = 1 cm², B = 3 T and I ≈ 4.94 A.)

  • 2073 Magh · 8 marks

What do you understand by magnetic hysteresis? Prove that the area of hysteresis loop is proportional to the energy loss per unit volume. Differentiate between hard and soft magnetic materials.

Answer

Magnetic hysteresis is the lagging of flux density B behind the magnetising force H when a ferromagnetic material is taken through a cycle of magnetisation. As a result the B–H curve forms a closed loop, and energy equal to its area is lost per cycle.

Hysteresis loop

              B
              |    __ a
          b  _|.-'  /
            / |    /
     c     /  |   /
  --*-----/---+--/---*--- H
         /    | /    f
        / ___.|'
     d -'     |e

ob = residual flux density (retentivity), oc = coercive force, a and d = positive and negative saturation.

Proof: area ∝ energy loss per unit volume

Ring: mean length ll, area AA, NN turns, current ii. By Ampere's law Hl=NiHl = Ni, so i=Hl/Ni = Hl/N. When B changes by dBdB the induced emf is e=NA dB/dte = NA\,dB/dt. Energy supplied by the source in time dtdt:

dW=e i dt=NAdBdt⋅HlN dt=(Al) H dB\begin{aligned} dW &= e\,i\,dt = NA\frac{dB}{dt}\cdot\frac{Hl}{N}\,dt = (Al)\,H\,dB \end{aligned}

Per unit volume, dw=H dBdw = H\,dB. For one complete cycle

w=∮H dB=area of B–H loop(J/m3)w = \oint H\,dB = \text{area of B–H loop} \quad (\text{J/m}^3)

The energy stored while B rises is only partly returned while B falls; the net amount, equal to the loop area, is converted into heat. Total hysteresis loss:

Ph=(loop area)×V×f W≈ηBm1.6fVP_h = (\text{loop area}) \times V \times f \ \text{W} \approx \eta B_m^{1.6} f V

Hard and soft magnetic materials

PointSoft magnetic materialHard magnetic material
Loop shapeNarrow, tallWide, nearly square
Hysteresis lossSmallLarge
CoercivityLowHigh
RetentivityLow to moderateHigh
PermeabilityHighLow
Magnetise / demagnetiseEasilyWith difficulty
UsesTransformer and machine cores, relaysPermanent magnets, meters, loudspeakers
ExamplesSilicon steel, CRGO, soft iron, ferriteAlnico, ferrite magnets, NdFeB, carbon steel

Soft materials are chosen for ac machines because their small loop area gives low core loss; hard materials are chosen where the magnetism must be kept.

  • 2073 Magh · 8 marks

A steel ring of 12 cm mean radius and of circular cross section 1 cm in radius has an air gap of 2 mm length. It is wound uniformly with 550 turns of wire carrying 3 A. Neglecting magnetic leakage, calculate the magnetic flux density in the core. Given that relative permeability of the steel is 800.

Answer

Flux density follows from NI=Hili+HglgNI = H_i l_i + H_g l_g with the same B in the steel and in the gap.

Data: mean radius r=0.12r = 0.12 m, section radius 1 cm, lg=2l_g = 2 mm, N=550N = 550, I=3I = 3 A, μr=800\mu_r = 800.

Dimensions

l=2πr=2π×0.12=0.7540 mli=0.7540−0.002=0.7520 mA=π(0.01)2=3.1416×10−4 m2\begin{aligned} l &= 2\pi r = 2\pi\times0.12 = 0.7540\ \text{m} \\ l_i &= 0.7540 - 0.002 = 0.7520\ \text{m} \\ A &= \pi (0.01)^2 = 3.1416\times10^{-4}\ \text{m}^2 \end{aligned}

Flux density

NI=Bμ0(liμr+lg)B=μ0NIliμr+lg=4π×10−7×550×30.7520800+0.002=2.0735×10−39.40×10−4+2×10−3=2.0735×10−32.940×10−3=0.705 T\begin{aligned} NI &= \frac{B}{\mu_0}\left(\frac{l_i}{\mu_r} + l_g\right) \\ B &= \frac{\mu_0 NI}{\dfrac{l_i}{\mu_r} + l_g} = \frac{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times550\times3}{\dfrac{0.7520}{800} + 0.002} \\ &= \frac{2.0735\times10^{-3}}{9.40\times10^{-4} + 2\times10^{-3}} = \frac{2.0735\times10^{-3}}{2.940\times10^{-3}} \\ &= 0.705\ \text{T} \end{aligned}

Flux: ϕ=BA=0.705×3.1416×10−4=2.22×10−4\phi = BA = 0.705\times3.1416\times10^{-4} = 2.22\times10^{-4} Wb.

Answer: B ≈ 0.705 T (flux ≈ 0.222 mWb).

  • 2073 Bhadra · 8 marks

Define magnetic circuit and hence list out the similarities between magnetic and electric circuits. Deduce Ohm's law for magnetic circuit.

Answer

A magnetic circuit is the closed path followed by magnetic flux. It is usually made of high-permeability iron (sometimes with air gaps) and is excited by a coil carrying current, e.g. the core of a transformer, relay or electrical machine.

     +-----------------+
     |    phi -->      |
   ==|== N turns       |  iron core,
   ==|== I             |  mean length l,
     |                 |  area A
     +-----------------+

Similarities between magnetic and electric circuits

Magnetic circuitElectric circuit
Flux ϕ\phi (Wb)Current II (A)
MMF F=NIF = NI (AT)EMF EE (V)
Reluctance S=l/(μ0μrA)S = l/(\mu_0\mu_r A)Resistance R=ρl/AR = \rho l / A
Permeance =1/S= 1/SConductance =1/R= 1/R
Permeability μ\muConductivity σ\sigma
Flux density B=ϕ/AB = \phi/ACurrent density J=I/AJ = I/A
Magnetic field strength HHElectric field strength EE
ϕ=F/S\phi = F/SI=E/RI = E/R
Reluctances add in series; permeances add in parallelResistances add in series; conductances add in parallel
Kirchhoff's laws: ∑ϕ=0\sum \phi = 0 at a node, ∑F=∑ϕS\sum F = \sum \phi S in a loop∑I=0\sum I = 0, ∑E=∑IR\sum E = \sum IR

Points of difference: flux does not truly flow, no energy is spent to maintain a constant flux (but I2RI^2R loss occurs with current), and μ\mu is not constant because iron saturates, while R is nearly constant.

Ohm's law for a magnetic circuit

Take a uniform ring of mean length ll (m), area AA (m²), relative permeability μr\mu_r, wound with NN turns carrying II.

By Ampere's circuital law, ∮H dl=NI\oint H\,dl = NI, so

H=NIlH = \frac{NI}{l}

Then

B=μ0μrH=μ0μrNIlϕ=BA=μ0μrA NIlϕ=NIlμ0μrA=FS\begin{aligned} B &= \mu_0\mu_r H = \frac{\mu_0\mu_r NI}{l} \\ \phi &= BA = \frac{\mu_0\mu_r A\, NI}{l} \\ \phi &= \frac{NI}{\dfrac{l}{\mu_0\mu_r A}} = \frac{F}{S} \end{aligned}

So flux = mmf ÷ reluctance, which is Ohm's law for the magnetic circuit (I=E/RI = E/R). For a composite circuit (iron + air gap) the reluctances add: ϕ=NI/(Si+Sg)\phi = NI/(S_i + S_g).

  • 2072 Asoj · 4+4 marks

What is eddy current loss? How does it take place in ferromagnetic material with ac excitation? How can it be minimized?

Answer

Eddy current loss is the I2RI^2R heat loss caused by circulating currents (eddy currents) induced in the body of a conducting magnetic core when the flux through it changes.

How it takes place with ac excitation

  • With an ac supply the core flux alternates: ϕ=ϕmsin⁡ωt\phi = \phi_m \sin\omega t.
  • The iron core is itself a conductor. It can be regarded as many closed loops lying in planes perpendicular to the flux.
  • By Faraday's law an emf e=dϕ/dte = d\phi/dt is induced in each loop, so currents circulate in the core in closed paths, like whirlpools ("eddies").
  • These currents flow through the resistance of the iron and produce heat I2RI^2R. They also set up their own flux opposing the main flux (Lenz's law).
  Solid core              Laminated core
  +-----------+          +-+-+-+-+-+-+
  |  .-----.  |          |o|o|o|o|o|o|
  | (   o   ) |  phi     | | | | | | |  small loops,
  |  '-----'  | (out)    |o|o|o|o|o|o|  high resistance
  +-----------+          +-+-+-+-+-+-+
  large eddy loop        insulated sheets

Expression

Pe=KeBm2f2t2VWP_e = K_e B_m^2 f^2 t^2 V \quad \text{W}

where BmB_m = peak flux density, ff = frequency, tt = lamination thickness, VV = core volume, KeK_e = a constant that falls as the resistivity of the material rises. Since the induced emf ∝ fBmtfB_m t and loss ∝ emf², the loss depends on the square of each.

Methods of minimising eddy current loss

  1. Laminating the core: build the core from thin sheets (0.25–0.5 mm) insulated from each other by varnish or oxide, with the sheets parallel to the flux. Each eddy path is confined to a thin sheet, its emf is small and its resistance high. Loss ∝ t2t^2, so halving thickness quarters the loss.
  2. Using high-resistivity material: adding 3–4% silicon to steel raises its resistivity and lowers the eddy currents (and also reduces hysteresis loss).
  3. Ferrite or powdered-iron cores for high-frequency use, where resistivity is very high.
  4. Limiting BmB_m and frequency in design, since loss ∝ Bm2f2B_m^2 f^2.
  • 2071 Magh · 8 marks

Explain the magnetization characteristic of an iron core with AC excitation.

Answer

When an iron core is excited from an ac source, B and H vary cyclically. The ac magnetisation characteristic is the curve of peak flux density BmB_m against peak magnetising force HmH_m (or ϕm\phi_m against ImI_m), obtained by joining the tips of the hysteresis loops traced at different excitation levels. It shows how the core magnetises under ac and gives its permeability and saturation.

Obtaining the characteristic

   B
   |             ___  saturation
   |         _.-' 
   |       /   (tips of loops)
   |     /:  
   |    / :  <- knee
   |   /  :
   |  /    linear region
   | / 
   |/  
 --+------------------- H
   |
  1. A coil on the core is fed from a variable ac voltage at fixed frequency.
  2. For a given voltage, the core goes round a hysteresis loop between ±Bm\pm B_m and ±Hm\pm H_m. Since V≈4.44fNϕmV \approx 4.44 f N \phi_m, BmB_m is fixed by the voltage.
  3. The voltage is raised step by step; each time a bigger loop is traced.
  4. The curve through the tips (Hm,Bm)(H_m, B_m) of all the loops is the ac (normal) magnetisation curve.

Regions of the curve

  • Initial region: at very low H the slope is small (domains move reversibly).
  • Linear region: B rises almost in proportion to H; permeability is high and nearly constant. Machines and transformers are designed to work just below the knee.
  • Knee: the slope falls as domains approach full alignment.
  • Saturation region: further H gives very little increase in B; μr\mu_r falls towards 1.

Features under ac excitation

  • Hysteresis: each cycle traces a loop of area ∮H dB\oint H\,dB, giving loss Ph=ηBm1.6fVP_h = \eta B_m^{1.6}fV.
  • Eddy currents widen the dynamic loop further, and total core loss Pc=Ph+PeP_c = P_h + P_e appears as the core-loss component of exciting current.
  • Non-sinusoidal current: if the voltage (and so flux) is sinusoidal, the non-linear curve makes the magnetising current peaky with strong 3rd harmonic, especially near saturation.
  • Apparent (ac) permeability μ=Bm/Hm\mu = B_m/H_m varies with excitation level, being highest near the knee.

Use

The curve is used to choose the working flux density (about 1.2–1.7 T for silicon steel), to find the magnetising current for a given voltage, and to judge how much over-voltage a transformer can take before saturating.

  • 2071 Magh · 8 marks

An iron ring has a mean length of 1.25 m and cross-sectional area of 0.02 m². It has a radial air gap of 5 mm. Calculate the number of turns required to be wound on the core to produce a magnetic flux of 0.5 weber in the air gap with current of 2 amp in the coil. Assume that relative permeability of the core is 1000.

Answer

Required mmf = flux × total reluctance; then N=F/IN = F/I. Iron length is taken as li=1.25−0.005=1.245l_i = 1.25 - 0.005 = 1.245 m; gap area = core area.

Data: A=0.02A = 0.02 m², lg=5l_g = 5 mm, ϕ=0.5\phi = 0.5 Wb, I=2I = 2 A, μr=1000\mu_r = 1000.

Reluctances

Si=liμ0μrA=1.2454π×10−7×1000×0.02=4.954×104 AT/WbSg=lgμ0A=0.0054π×10−7×0.02=1.989×105 AT/WbS=Si+Sg=2.485×105 AT/Wb\begin{aligned} S_i &= \frac{l_i}{\mu_0\mu_r A} = \frac{1.245}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times1000\times0.02} = 4.954\times10^{4}\ \text{AT/Wb} \\ S_g &= \frac{l_g}{\mu_0 A} = \frac{0.005}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times0.02} = 1.989\times10^{5}\ \text{AT/Wb} \\ S &= S_i + S_g = 2.485\times10^{5}\ \text{AT/Wb} \end{aligned}

MMF and turns

F=ϕS=0.5×2.485×105=1.2424×105 ATN=FI=1.2424×1052=62120 turns\begin{aligned} F &= \phi S = 0.5\times2.485\times10^{5} = 1.2424\times10^{5}\ \text{AT} \\ N &= \frac{F}{I} = \frac{1.2424\times10^{5}}{2} = 62120\ \text{turns} \end{aligned}

Answer: N ≈ 62,120 turns. (Using the full 1.25 m as iron length gives N ≈ 62,170.) Note: B = 0.5/0.02 = 25 T, which no iron can reach; the figure follows only from the constant μr given.

  • 2071 Bhadra · 2+6 marks

What do you mean by retentivity and coercivity of a core? Prove that the energy spent in hysteresis loop is Wh = ∮H.dB.

Answer

Retentivity and coercivity

  • Retentivity (residual flux density, BrB_r): the flux density that remains in a magnetic material when the magnetising force H is reduced to zero after saturating it. It measures how much magnetism the material keeps.
  • Coercivity (coercive force, HcH_c): the reverse magnetising force needed to reduce the residual flux density to zero. It measures how hard it is to demagnetise the material.
             B
             |   __ +Bsat
        Br  _|-'  /
           / |   /
   -Hc    /  |  /
  ---*---/---+-/----- H
        /    |/

Permanent magnets need high BrB_r and high HcH_c; transformer cores need low HcH_c.

Proof that Wh=∮H dBW_h = \oint H\,dB

Consider a ring of magnetic material with mean length ll (m), cross-sectional area AA (m²), uniformly wound with NN turns carrying current ii.

  1. By Ampere's circuital law the field intensity is
Hl=Ni  ⇒  i=HlNH l = N i \;\Rightarrow\; i = \frac{H l}{N}
  1. If the flux density changes by dBdB in time dtdt, the flux changes by A dBA\,dB, and the emf induced in the coil is
e=Ndϕdt=NAdBdte = N\frac{d\phi}{dt} = N A \frac{dB}{dt}
  1. To keep the current flowing against this emf, the source supplies power p=e ip = e\,i. The energy supplied in time dtdt is
dW=e i dt=NAdBdt⋅HlN dt=A l H dB\begin{aligned} dW &= e\, i\, dt \\ &= N A \frac{dB}{dt} \cdot \frac{Hl}{N}\, dt \\ &= A\,l\,H\,dB \end{aligned}
  1. AlAl is the volume of the core, so the energy per unit volume is dw=H dBdw = H\,dB.

  2. Over a complete cycle of magnetisation (B going from +Bm+B_m to −Bm-B_m and back):

Wh=∮H dBJ/m3 per cycleW_h = \oint H\,dB \quad \text{J/m}^3 \text{ per cycle}

During the parts of the cycle where H and dB have the same sign energy is taken from the source; where they have opposite signs energy is returned. The integral round the closed loop is the net energy absorbed, which equals the area of the hysteresis loop and is dissipated as heat.

Hence hysteresis power loss for a core of volume VV at frequency ff:

Ph=f V∮H dBWP_h = f\,V \oint H\,dB \quad \text{W}
  • 2070 Bhadra · 8 marks

An iron ring has a mean length of 1.5 m and cross-sectional area of 50 cm². It has a radial air gap of 4 mm. The ring is wound with 500 turns. What dc current would be needed in the coil to produce a flux of 100 mWb in the air gap? Assume that μr = 2000.

Answer

Required mmf = ampere-turns for the gap + ampere-turns for the iron, with the same flux density in both (no leakage or fringing). Iron length li=1.5−0.004=1.496l_i = 1.5 - 0.004 = 1.496 m.

Data: A=50A = 50 cm² =5×10−3= 5\times10^{-3} m², lg=4l_g = 4 mm, N=500N = 500, ϕ=100\phi = 100 mWb, μr=2000\mu_r = 2000.

Flux density

B=ϕA=0.15×10−3=20 TB = \frac{\phi}{A} = \frac{0.1}{5\times10^{-3}} = 20\ \text{T}

Air gap

Hg=Bμ0=204π×10−7=1.5915×107 AT/mATg=Hglg=1.5915×107×0.004=63662 AT\begin{aligned} H_g &= \frac{B}{\mu_0} = \frac{20}{4\pi\times10^{-7}} = 1.5915\times10^{7}\ \text{AT/m} \\ AT_g &= H_g l_g = 1.5915\times10^{7}\times0.004 = 63662\ \text{AT} \end{aligned}

Iron

Hi=Hgμr=1.5915×1072000=7958 AT/mATi=7958×1.496=11905 AT\begin{aligned} H_i &= \frac{H_g}{\mu_r} = \frac{1.5915\times10^{7}}{2000} = 7958\ \text{AT/m} \\ AT_i &= 7958\times1.496 = 11905\ \text{AT} \end{aligned}

Current

NI=63662+11905=75567 ATI=75567500=151.1 A\begin{aligned} NI &= 63662 + 11905 = 75567\ \text{AT} \\ I &= \frac{75567}{500} = 151.1\ \text{A} \end{aligned}

Answer: I ≈ 151 A (dc). (B = 20 T is far above what iron can carry; the figure assumes μr stays constant at 2000 as given.)

  • 2069 Poush · 8 marks

An 80 cm long iron rod has cross-sectional area of 200 sq.mm. It is bent into a circular ring with an air gap of 4 mm and the ring is wound with 500 turns of winding. What dc current would be needed in the coil to produce a flux of 250 mWb in the air gap? Assume that μr = 4000.

Answer

When the rod is bent into a ring and a 4 mm gap is cut, the iron length is li=0.80−0.004=0.796l_i = 0.80 - 0.004 = 0.796 m. The same flux passes through iron and gap.

Data: A=200A = 200 mm² =2×10−4= 2\times10^{-4} m², lg=4l_g = 4 mm, N=500N = 500, μr=4000\mu_r = 4000, ϕ=250\phi = 250 mWb.

Flux density

B=ϕA=0.252×10−4=1250 TB = \frac{\phi}{A} = \frac{0.25}{2\times10^{-4}} = 1250\ \text{T}

Ampere-turns

ATg=Bμ0lg=12504π×10−7×0.004=3.979×106 ATATi=Bμ0μrli=9.947×1084000×0.796=1.979×105 ATNI=3.979×106+1.979×105=4.177×106 AT\begin{aligned} AT_g &= \frac{B}{\mu_0}l_g = \frac{1250}{4\pi\times10^{-7}}\times0.004 = 3.979\times10^{6}\ \text{AT} \\ AT_i &= \frac{B}{\mu_0\mu_r}l_i = \frac{9.947\times10^{8}}{4000}\times0.796 = 1.979\times10^{5}\ \text{AT} \\ NI &= 3.979\times10^{6} + 1.979\times10^{5} = 4.177\times10^{6}\ \text{AT} \end{aligned}

Current

I=4.177×106500=8354 AI = \frac{4.177\times10^{6}}{500} = 8354\ \text{A}

Answer (data as given): I ≈ 8354 A.

A flux density of 1250 T is physically impossible, so the flux is most likely a misprint for 250 μWb. Then B=1.25B = 1.25 T, ATg=3978.9AT_g = 3978.9 AT, ATi=197.9AT_i = 197.9 AT, NI=4176.8NI = 4176.8 AT and

I=4176.8500=8.35 AI = \frac{4176.8}{500} = 8.35\ \text{A}

which is the realistic answer (the method is identical; the current scales directly with flux).

  • 2069 Bhadra · 8 marks

A 50 cm long iron rod is bent into circular ring and 1000 turns of windings are wound on it. The diameter of the rod is 40 mm and relative permeability of the iron is 5000. Calculate the inductance of the coil. If a time varying current is passed through the coil whose magnitude changes from 2 amp to 10 amp in 5 ms, calculate the average value of emf induced in the coil.

Answer

Inductance of a toroid: L=N2/S=μ0μrN2A/lL = N^2/S = \mu_0\mu_r N^2 A/l. Average emf = L×L \times (change of current)/(time).

Data: l=0.5l = 0.5 m, N=1000N = 1000, d=40d = 40 mm, μr=5000\mu_r = 5000.

Cross-sectional area

A=πd24=π(0.04)24=1.2566×10−3 m2A = \frac{\pi d^2}{4} = \frac{\pi(0.04)^2}{4} = 1.2566\times10^{-3}\ \text{m}^2

Inductance

L=μ0μrN2Al=4π×10−7×5000×(1000)2×1.2566×10−30.5=15.79 H\begin{aligned} L &= \frac{\mu_0\mu_r N^2 A}{l} \\ &= \frac{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times5000\times(1000)^2\times1.2566\times10^{-3}}{0.5} \\ &= 15.79\ \text{H} \end{aligned}

Average induced emf

eavg=LΔIΔt=15.79×10−25×10−3=15.79×1600=25266 V\begin{aligned} e_{avg} &= L\frac{\Delta I}{\Delta t} = 15.79\times\frac{10 - 2}{5\times10^{-3}} \\ &= 15.79\times1600 = 25266\ \text{V} \end{aligned}

Answer: L ≈ 15.79 H; average emf ≈ 25.3 kV (it opposes the rise of current, by Lenz's law). The very large value comes from the high μr and fast change of current; in practice saturation would reduce L.

  • 2068 Bhadra · 8 marks

For magnetic circuit shown in figure below, calculate the current to be passed through coil A so that magnetic flux in the central core is 2 mWb. Given that the relative permeability of core = 1000. Given that: I2 = 5 Amp, A1 = 4 cm², A2 = 2 cm², AB = CD = EF = 15 cm, BC = AD = BE = AF = 15 cm. [Figure: three-limb core with top yoke E–B–C and bottom yoke F–A–D; the central limb BA has cross-section A1 and carries coil A (N1 = 500 turns, current I1) and coil B (N2 = 300 turns, current I2); the outer limbs EF and CD have cross-section A2.]

Answer

Both coils sit on the central limb BA, so their mmfs act together on the centre limb. The centre flux divides equally between the two identical outer paths (B–C–D–A and B–E–F–A).

Assumptions: coils A and B aid each other; each outer path (yokes and outer limb) has area A2=2A_2 = 2 cm² and length BC + CD + DA = 15 + 15 + 15 = 45 cm; the central limb is 15 cm long with area A1=4A_1 = 4 cm²; no leakage.

   E-------B-------C
   |       |       |
   |   [A: 500T]   |
   |   [B: 300T]   |
   |       | phi   |
   F-------A-------D

Fluxes

ϕc=2 mWb,ϕouter=22=1 mWb in each outer path\phi_c = 2\ \text{mWb}, \quad \phi_{outer} = \frac{2}{2} = 1\ \text{mWb in each outer path}

Reluctances

Sc=0.154π×10−7×1000×4×10−4=2.984×105 AT/WbSo=0.454π×10−7×1000×2×10−4=1.790×106 AT/Wb\begin{aligned} S_c &= \frac{0.15}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times1000\times4\times10^{-4}} = 2.984\times10^{5}\ \text{AT/Wb} \\ S_o &= \frac{0.45}{4\pi\times10^{-7}\times1000\times2\times10^{-4}} = 1.790\times10^{6}\ \text{AT/Wb} \end{aligned}

MMF required (one loop: centre limb + one outer path)

F=ϕcSc+ϕoSo=2×10−3×2.984×105+1×10−3×1.790×106=596.8+1790.5=2387.3 AT\begin{aligned} F &= \phi_c S_c + \phi_o S_o \\ &= 2\times10^{-3}\times2.984\times10^{5} + 1\times10^{-3}\times1.790\times10^{6} \\ &= 596.8 + 1790.5 = 2387.3\ \text{AT} \end{aligned}

Current in coil A

N1I1+N2I2=2387.3500 I1=2387.3−300×5=887.3I1=1.775 A\begin{aligned} N_1 I_1 + N_2 I_2 &= 2387.3 \\ 500\, I_1 &= 2387.3 - 300\times5 = 887.3 \\ I_1 &= 1.775\ \text{A} \end{aligned}

Answer: I₁ ≈ 1.77 A (coils aiding). If coil B opposes coil A, 500I1=2387.3+1500500 I_1 = 2387.3 + 1500 and I1=7.77I_1 = 7.77 A.

(The flux density is 5 T in every part; with real iron this would saturate, so the result holds only for the constant μr given.)

Questions from Old Question Collection (EE 550) (IOE EE 551 exam papers, 2068 Bhadra to 2080 Chaitra) and 2080 course papers (ENEE 202) (New-course ENEE 202 papers, 2081 Chaitra and 2082 Kartik). Answers are written for this site; check them against your class notes.

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