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Nepal Engineering Council · Electronics, Communication & Information Engineering · Chapter 6

Electromagnetic and Communication System

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216 questions in 6 syllabus topics.

6.1 Electric field and Magnetic field

34 questions · AEiE0601

1. Physically, the divergence of a vector field at a point represents:

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Think of a source or sink of field lines.

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Answer: D. The net outward flux per unit volume as the volume shrinks to that point

Divergence is defined as the limit of the net outward flux through a closed surface divided by the enclosed volume; it measures the source strength at the point.

2. The divergence theorem relates:

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Surface on one side, volume on the other.

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Answer: B. The closed-surface integral of a vector to the volume integral of its divergence

Divergence theorem: ∮ A·dS = ∫ (∇·A) dv over the volume enclosed by the surface. The closed-line/curl relation is Stokes' theorem.

3. A point charge of 2 nC is in free space. The electric field intensity at a distance of 3 m from it is approximately:

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Field falls as the square of distance.

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Answer: C. 2 V/m

E = Q/(4πε0 r²) = 9×10⁹ × 2×10⁻⁹ / 3² = 18/9 = 2 V/m.

4. In free space the electric field intensity at a point is 100 V/m. The electric flux density there is about:

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D = ε0E in free space.

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Answer: B. 0.885 nC/m²

D = ε0E = 8.854×10⁻¹² × 100 = 8.85×10⁻¹⁰ C/m² ≈ 0.885 nC/m².

5. A closed surface encloses charges of +5 nC and −2 nC, while a charge of +4 nC lies outside it. The total electric flux (Ψ = ∮D·dS) leaving the surface is:

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Charges outside the surface do not count.

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Answer: A. 3 nC

By Gauss's law, only enclosed charge counts: Ψ = 5 − 2 = 3 nC. The outside charge contributes zero net flux.

6. Given D = x²y ax + yz ay C/m², the volume charge density at the point (1, 2, 3) m is:

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Take ∂Dx/∂x + ∂Dy/∂y.

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Answer: A. 7 C/m³

ρv = ∇·D = ∂(x²y)/∂x + ∂(yz)/∂y = 2xy + z = 2(1)(2) + 3 = 7 C/m³.

7. The potential in a region is V = x²y volts (x, y in metres). The electric field intensity at (1, 2) m is:

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E is the negative gradient of V.

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Answer: D. −4 ax − ay V/m

E = −∇V = −(2xy ax + x² ay). At (1, 2): −(4 ax + 1 ay) = −4 ax − ay V/m.

8. For a static electric field, ∮E·dl = 0 around any closed path. This means:

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Work done moving a charge round a loop.

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Answer: A. The electrostatic field is conservative, i.e. ∇×E = 0

A zero closed-path line integral means the work done is path-independent, so E is conservative (curl-free) and can be written as −∇V.

9. The energy density stored in an electrostatic field in a linear dielectric of permittivity ε is:

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Compare with ½CV² for a capacitor.

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Answer: C. ½ εE² J/m³

wE = ½ D·E = ½ εE² joules per cubic metre.

10. The electric field in air is uniform at 1 MV/m. The energy stored per unit volume is about:

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Square the field before multiplying.

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Answer: A. 4.43 J/m³

w = ½ ε0E² = 0.5 × 8.854×10⁻¹² × (10⁶)² = 4.43 J/m³.

11. In a polarized dielectric with polarization P, the bound volume charge density is:

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Mind the sign; P·an is the surface version.

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Answer: A. ρb = −∇·P

Bound volume charge density is ρb = −∇·P; the bound surface charge density is ρsb = P·an.

12. A dielectric with εr = 5 is in a uniform electric field of 10 kV/m. The polarization P is about:

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Use the susceptibility χe = εr − 1.

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Answer: B. 0.354 µC/m²

P = ε0(εr − 1)E = 8.854×10⁻¹² × 4 × 10⁴ = 3.54×10⁻⁷ C/m² ≈ 0.354 µC/m².

13. The relative permittivity εr of a linear dielectric is related to its electric susceptibility χe by:

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Free space has χe = 0 and εr = 1.

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Answer: B. εr = 1 + χe

D = ε0E + P = ε0(1 + χe)E, so ε = ε0(1 + χe) and εr = 1 + χe.

14. For charges +Q and −Q separated by a distance d, the electric dipole moment is:

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Convention: the vector points toward the positive charge.

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Answer: B. Qd, directed from −Q to +Q

The dipole moment p = Qd, where d is the vector from the negative charge to the positive charge.

15. At a large distance r from an electric dipole, the potential and the field intensity vary respectively as:

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One power of r faster than a point charge.

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Answer: A. 1/r² and 1/r³

Dipole potential V = p cosθ/(4πε0 r²); taking the gradient adds one more power of r, so E ∝ 1/r³.

16. An electric dipole of moment 1 nC·m is in free space. The potential at a point 1 m away, at 60° from the dipole axis, is about:

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Use cosθ, measured from the dipole axis.

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Answer: C. 4.5 V

V = p cosθ/(4πε0 r²) = 9×10⁹ × 10⁻⁹ × cos60° / 1² = 9 × 0.5 = 4.5 V.

17. Under electrostatic conditions, at the surface of a perfect conductor:

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Field lines leave a conductor perpendicularly.

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Answer: C. Tangential E is zero and normal D equals the surface charge density

Inside a conductor E = 0; at its surface Et = 0 and Dn = ρs, so the field leaves the surface normally.

18. Two dielectrics with εr1 = 2 and εr2 = 6 meet at a plane boundary with no free surface charge. If the normal component of E in medium 1 is 30 V/m, the normal component of E in medium 2 is:

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Which component is continuous: normal D or normal E?

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Answer: B. 10 V/m

Normal D is continuous: εr1E1n = εr2E2n, so E2n = 2 × 30 / 6 = 10 V/m.

19. At the interface of two perfect dielectrics carrying no free surface charge, which quantity is continuous?

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Comes from ∮E·dl = 0 around a thin loop.

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Answer: B. Tangential component of E

Boundary conditions: E1t = E2t and D1n = D2n (with no free surface charge). Tangential D and normal E change by the permittivity ratio.

20. Free charges differ from bound charges in that free charges:

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Think conductor versus dielectric.

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Answer: D. Can move over macroscopic distances, like conduction electrons in a metal

Bound charges are displaced only slightly within atoms or molecules (polarization); free charges such as conduction electrons can move through the material.

21. According to the Biot-Savart law, the magnetic field intensity due to a current element I dl at distance R is:

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H is perpendicular to both dl and R.

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Answer: B. dH = I dl × aR / (4πR²)

The Biot-Savart law gives dH = I dl × aR/(4πR²): a cross product (H is perpendicular to both dl and R) with inverse-square dependence.

22. The SI unit of magnetic flux density B is:

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Flux per unit area.

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Answer: B. Tesla (Wb/m²)

B is flux per unit area: 1 T = 1 Wb/m². A/m is the unit of H, Wb is the unit of flux and H/m is the unit of permeability.

23. A long straight wire in air carries 10 A. The magnetic flux density at 5 cm from it is:

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Use B = µ0I/(2πr).

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Answer: A. 40 µT

B = µ0I/(2πr) = 4π×10⁻⁷ × 10 / (2π × 0.05) = 4×10⁻⁵ T = 40 µT.

24. An electron (charge 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ C) moves at 10⁶ m/s perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T. The magnitude of the magnetic force on it is:

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F = qvB when v is perpendicular to B.

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Answer: D. 1.6×10⁻¹⁴ N

F = qvB sin90° = 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ × 10⁶ × 0.1 = 1.6×10⁻¹⁴ N.

25. A static magnetic field acting on a moving charged particle:

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Is the force ever along the velocity?

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Answer: A. Changes the direction of its velocity but not its kinetic energy

F = q(v × B) is always perpendicular to v, so it does no work: it only bends the path and the speed stays constant.

26. A straight conductor 0.2 m long carrying 4 A is placed at 30° to a uniform field of 0.5 T. The force on it is:

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Use the sine of the angle between the conductor and B.

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Answer: B. 0.2 N

F = BIL sinθ = 0.5 × 4 × 0.2 × sin30° = 0.4 × 0.5 = 0.2 N.

27. A single square loop of side 10 cm carries a current of 2 A. Its magnetic dipole moment is:

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Moment = current × area.

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Answer: D. 0.02 A·m²

m = IA = 2 × (0.1)² = 0.02 A·m², directed normal to the loop by the right-hand rule.

28. A 50-turn coil of area 0.01 m² carries 0.5 A in a uniform field of 0.2 T. The plane of the coil is parallel to B. The torque on the coil is:

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Find the angle between the coil's normal and B.

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Answer: A. 0.05 N·m

With the plane parallel to B, the moment (normal to the plane) is perpendicular to B, so T = NIAB = 50 × 0.5 × 0.01 × 0.2 = 0.05 N·m (maximum).

29. The torque on a magnetic dipole of moment m in a uniform field B is:

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Torque is a vector that tends to align m with B.

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Answer: A. T = m × B

Torque is the cross product T = m × B; −m·B is the dipole's potential energy, not the torque.

30. At distances much larger than its size, a small current loop behaves as:

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Compare it with a bar magnet.

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Answer: A. A magnetic dipole whose field falls off as 1/r³

A small loop is the magnetic dipole; its far field has the same form as an electric dipole's, varying as 1/r³.

31. Magnetization M of a material is defined as:

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It is the magnetic analogue of polarization P.

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Answer: C. Magnetic dipole moment per unit volume

M is the net magnetic dipole moment per unit volume (A/m), and B = µ0(H + M).

32. A linear magnetic material with µr = 101 has H = 50 A/m inside it. The magnetization M is:

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χm = µr − 1.

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Answer: C. 5000 A/m

M = χmH = (µr − 1)H = 100 × 50 = 5000 A/m.

33. At the boundary between two magnetic media, which quantity is always continuous?

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It follows from ∇·B = 0.

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Answer: C. The normal component of B

From ∮B·dS = 0, B1n = B2n always. Tangential H is continuous only when there is no surface current (H1t − H2t = K).

34. Region 1 (µr1 = 4) and region 2 (µr2 = 1) share a boundary carrying no surface current. In region 1, H1 = 5 at + 3 an A/m (at tangential, an normal). In region 2, H2 is:

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Apply Ht continuity and Bn continuity separately.

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Answer: D. 5 at + 12 an A/m

Tangential H is continuous (5). Normal B is continuous: µr1H1n = µr2H2n, so H2n = 4 × 3/1 = 12. Hence H2 = 5 at + 12 an.

6.2 Wave propagation and antenna

40 questions · AEiE0602

35. Maxwell added the displacement current density ∂D/∂t to Ampere's law mainly to:

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Take the divergence of both sides of ∇×H = J.

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Answer: B. Make it consistent with the continuity equation for time-varying fields

Taking the divergence of ∇×H = J gives ∇·J = 0, which contradicts ∇·J = −∂ρv/∂t for time-varying charge; adding ∂D/∂t removes the contradiction.

36. A capacitor is connected to an AC source. The current through the dielectric between its plates is:

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Current continuity must hold around the circuit.

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Answer: C. Displacement current, equal in magnitude to the conduction current in the leads

No charge crosses the gap; the changing D between the plates constitutes a displacement current ε dE/dt × A, equal to the lead current, which keeps Ampere's law consistent.

37. In free space E = 10 sin(10⁹ t) ax V/m. The amplitude of the displacement current density is about:

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Differentiate E with respect to time and multiply by ε0.

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Answer: A. 0.0885 A/m²

Jd = ε0 ∂E/∂t = ε0 × 10 × 10⁹ cos(10⁹t), so amplitude = 8.854×10⁻¹² × 10¹⁰ = 0.0885 A/m².

38. Which Maxwell equation in point form expresses Faraday's law of induction?

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Look for the curl of E.

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Answer: D. ∇×E = −∂B/∂t

Faraday's law states that a time-varying magnetic field produces a circulating electric field: ∇×E = −∂B/∂t.

39. The integral form of the Maxwell equation ∇·B = 0 is:

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Divergence goes with a closed surface.

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Answer: C. ∮B·dS = 0

By the divergence theorem, ∫(∇·B)dv = ∮B·dS = 0: the net magnetic flux leaving any closed surface is zero.

40. In a source-free, lossless, homogeneous medium, the electric field satisfies the wave equation:

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It should contain a second time derivative.

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Answer: B. ∇²E = µε ∂²E/∂t²

Taking the curl of Faraday's law and using Ampere-Maxwell with J = 0 gives ∇²E = µε ∂²E/∂t², with wave speed 1/√(µε).

41. A uniform plane wave is a transverse electromagnetic (TEM) wave, which means:

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Both fields are transverse.

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Answer: A. E and H are perpendicular to each other and to the direction of propagation

In a uniform plane wave neither E nor H has a component along the direction of propagation; E, H and the direction of propagation are mutually perpendicular.

42. A plane wave in free space has a magnetic field amplitude of 1 A/m. The electric field amplitude is about:

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Use the intrinsic impedance of free space.

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Answer: C. 377 V/m

E = η0H with η0 = 120π ≈ 377 Ω, so E ≈ 377 V/m.

43. The intrinsic impedance of a lossless non-magnetic dielectric with εr = 4 is about:

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η scales as 1/√εr.

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Answer: C. 188 Ω

η = η0√(µr/εr) = 377/√4 ≈ 188.5 Ω.

44. The phase velocity of a plane wave in a lossless non-magnetic dielectric with εr = 9 is:

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Divide c by the refractive index.

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Answer: B. 1×10⁸ m/s

vp = c/√(µrεr) = 3×10⁸/3 = 1×10⁸ m/s.

45. For a uniform plane wave in a lossless dielectric:

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With σ = 0 the intrinsic impedance is real.

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Answer: A. There is no attenuation and E and H are in time phase

With σ = 0, α = 0 and η is purely real, so E and H are in phase and the amplitude stays constant.

46. For a plane wave in a lossy dielectric (σ ≠ 0):

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Compute η with σ included.

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Answer: D. The intrinsic impedance is complex, so E and H are out of time phase

η = √(jωµ/(σ + jωε)) becomes complex, so H lags E by the angle of η, and α > 0 causes attenuation.

47. A medium behaves as a good conductor at a given frequency when:

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Compare conduction and displacement currents.

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Answer: D. σ ≫ ωε

When the loss tangent σ/(ωε) ≫ 1, conduction current dominates displacement current and the medium is a good conductor.

48. The skin depth of copper (σ = 5.8×10⁷ S/m, µr = 1) at 1 MHz is about:

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δ = 1/√(πfµσ).

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Answer: D. 66 µm

δ = 1/√(πfµσ) = 1/√(π × 10⁶ × 4π×10⁻⁷ × 5.8×10⁷) ≈ 6.6×10⁻⁵ m = 66 µm.

49. If the frequency of a wave incident on a good conductor is increased four times, the skin depth:

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Skin depth varies inversely with the square root of frequency.

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Answer: A. Becomes half

δ ∝ 1/√f, so a 4× increase in f reduces δ by √4 = 2.

50. The Poynting vector P = E × H represents:

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Check the units of E × H.

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Answer: A. The instantaneous power flow per unit area, in W/m²

E × H has units (V/m)(A/m) = W/m² and gives the direction and density of electromagnetic power flow.

51. A plane wave in air is normally incident on a lossless non-magnetic dielectric with εr = 4. The reflection coefficient for E is:

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Γ = (η2 − η1)/(η2 + η1).

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Answer: B. −1/3

η2 = 377/2; Γ = (η2 − η1)/(η2 + η1) = (0.5 − 1)/(0.5 + 1) = −1/3. (The transmission coefficient is 1 + Γ = 2/3.)

52. When a plane wave is normally incident on a perfect conductor:

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Tangential E must vanish at a perfect conductor.

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Answer: D. Γ = −1, the wave is totally reflected and a standing wave with an E-field null at the surface forms

For a perfect conductor η2 = 0, so Γ = −1: total reflection, tangential E = 0 at the surface, and a pure standing wave in front of it.

53. A plane wave in air is obliquely incident on a non-magnetic dielectric with εr = 3. The Brewster angle is:

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tan θB = √(εr2/εr1).

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Answer: C. 60°

tan θB = √(ε2/ε1) = √3, so θB = 60°.

54. A wave travels from a non-magnetic dielectric with εr = 4 toward air. The critical angle for total internal reflection is:

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sin θc = n2/n1.

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Answer: C. 30°

sin θc = √(ε2/ε1) = √(1/4) = 0.5, so θc = 30°.

55. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide with broad dimension a greater than narrow dimension b is:

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The mode with the lowest cutoff frequency.

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Answer: C. TE10

TE10 has the lowest cutoff frequency, fc = c/(2a), so it is the dominant mode when a > b.

56. The lowest-order TM mode that can exist in a rectangular waveguide is:

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What happens to Ez if m or n is zero?

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Answer: B. TM11

For TM modes Ez ∝ sin(mπx/a) sin(nπy/b); if m or n is zero all fields vanish, so the lowest TM mode is TM11.

57. A TEM wave cannot propagate inside a hollow rectangular waveguide because:

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Compare with a coaxial cable.

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Answer: D. A hollow guide has only one conductor, and TEM waves need at least two conductors

A TEM mode needs a static-like transverse potential difference between two separate conductors, which a single hollow conductor cannot support.

58. In a transverse electric (TE) mode of a waveguide:

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'Transverse electric' says which field has no axial component.

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Answer: A. Ez = 0 and Hz ≠ 0

TE means the electric field is entirely transverse (no component along the guide axis), while the magnetic field has a longitudinal component.

59. When a waveguide is operated below the cutoff frequency of a mode, that mode:

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A waveguide behaves like a high-pass filter.

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Answer: D. Is evanescent: its fields decay exponentially along the guide and carry no real power

Below cutoff the propagation constant is purely real (attenuation), so the waveguide behaves as a high-pass filter for that mode.

60. An air-filled rectangular waveguide has a = 2.286 cm and b = 1.016 cm. The cutoff frequency of the TE10 mode is about:

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TE10 cutoff depends only on the broad dimension.

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Answer: C. 6.56 GHz

fc(TE10) = c/(2a) = 3×10⁸/(2 × 0.02286) ≈ 6.56 GHz.

61. Electromagnetic radiation from an antenna is produced by:

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Static sources produce static fields.

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Answer: B. Time-varying (accelerating or decelerating) currents or charges

Static charges produce only electrostatic fields and steady currents only magnetostatic fields; radiation requires time-varying current, i.e. accelerated charge.

62. The reciprocity theorem applied to antennas implies that:

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Can the same dish be used to transmit and receive?

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Answer: B. An antenna's radiation pattern and impedance are the same whether it transmits or receives

Because Maxwell's equations are reciprocal in linear, isotropic media, an antenna's transmit and receive properties (pattern, gain, impedance) are identical.

63. The directivity of an antenna is the ratio of:

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Compare with an isotropic radiator of equal total power.

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Answer: A. Its maximum radiation intensity to the average radiation intensity over all directions

D = Umax/Uavg = 4πUmax/Prad, i.e. compared with an isotropic source radiating the same total power. Losses do not enter directivity.

64. An antenna has directivity 10 and radiation efficiency 80%. Its gain is about:

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Multiply first, then convert to dB.

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Answer: C. 9.0 dBi

G = ηD = 0.8 × 10 = 8, and 10 log10(8) ≈ 9.03 dBi.

65. A Hertzian (short) dipole has length λ/20. Its radiation resistance is about:

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Rr = 80π²(dl/λ)².

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Answer: A. 1.97 Ω

Rr = 80π²(dl/λ)² = 80 × 9.87 × (1/20)² ≈ 1.97 Ω.

66. The directivity of a thin half-wave dipole is about:

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Slightly more directive than a short dipole.

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Answer: D. 1.64 (2.15 dBi)

A half-wave dipole has D ≈ 1.64 (2.15 dBi) and Rr ≈ 73 Ω; 1.5 is the Hertzian dipole's directivity.

67. The half-power beamwidth (HPBW) of an antenna is the angular width of the main lobe between the points where:

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Half power, not half field.

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Answer: D. The radiated power density falls to half (−3 dB) of its maximum

HPBW is measured between the −3 dB (half-power, 0.707 field) points; the angle between the first nulls is FNBW.

68. An isotropic antenna is:

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It is the reference for dBi.

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Answer: A. A hypothetical lossless point source that radiates equally in all directions

The isotropic radiator cannot be built; its spherical pattern serves as the 0 dBi reference for gain and directivity.

69. An omnidirectional antenna, such as a vertical dipole, has a radiation pattern that is:

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Think of the doughnut shape.

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Answer: D. Uniform in one plane (e.g. azimuth) but directional in the perpendicular plane

An omnidirectional antenna radiates equally in all directions of one plane (a circle in the H-plane) while its E-plane pattern has nulls, giving a doughnut-shaped 3-D pattern.

70. The radiation pattern of a thin vertical half-wave dipole has:

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A dipole does not radiate off its ends.

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Answer: D. Maximum radiation broadside (perpendicular) to the wire and nulls along its axis

The dipole pattern varies roughly as sin θ (more precisely cos(π/2 cosθ)/sinθ), maximum at θ = 90° and zero along the axis.

71. A travelling-wave (non-resonant) antenna such as a long wire terminated in a matched load:

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What does the matched termination remove?

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Answer: A. Has no standing wave on it, a unidirectional pattern and a wide bandwidth

The matched termination absorbs the forward wave, so there is no reflected wave; the current is a travelling wave giving a unidirectional pattern toward the load and broad bandwidth.

72. A rhombic antenna is mainly used for:

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It needs a large area and wire lengths of several wavelengths.

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Answer: B. Long-distance HF point-to-point sky-wave links

The terminated rhombic is a large, broadband, directive travelling-wave antenna made of long wires, suited to HF point-to-point communication via the ionosphere.

73. The key geometric property of a paraboloidal reflector is that:

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This is why dish feeds sit at the focus.

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Answer: A. Rays from a source at the focus are reflected parallel to the axis, with equal path lengths to the aperture plane

All paths from the focus to the aperture plane via the parabola are equal, so a spherical wave from the focal feed becomes a plane wave, producing a narrow pencil beam.

74. In a Yagi-Uda antenna, compared with the driven element:

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The beam points toward the directors.

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Answer: D. The reflector is slightly longer and the directors are slightly shorter

A longer (inductive) reflector and shorter (capacitive) directors set the currents' phases so the radiation is concentrated toward the directors.

6.3 Communication System

34 questions · AEiE0603

75. In the basic block diagram of a communication system, which block lies between the transmitter and the receiver?

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Think of the medium the signal travels through.

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Answer: A. Channel

The channel is the physical medium (wire, fibre, free space) that carries the transmitted signal from transmitter to receiver.

76. The main purpose of the source encoder in a digital communication system is to:

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Compare source coding with channel coding.

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Answer: D. Remove redundancy so the message is represented with fewer bits

Source coding (compression) removes redundancy to represent the source efficiently; adding controlled redundancy is the job of the channel encoder.

77. The channel encoder in a digital communication system deliberately:

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It fights the effects of the channel, not the source.

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Answer: B. Adds controlled redundancy to detect or correct errors

Channel coding inserts extra (parity) bits in a controlled way so the receiver can detect or correct transmission errors.

78. Which block of a communication system converts a non-electrical message (such as sound) into an electrical signal?

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A microphone is an example.

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Answer: C. Input transducer

A transducer such as a microphone converts the physical message into an electrical signal before transmission.

79. A major advantage of digital communication over analog communication is that:

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Think of what a repeater can do with a 0/1 pulse.

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Answer: D. Regenerative repeaters can remove accumulated noise along the link

Digital pulses can be detected and regenerated afresh at each repeater, so noise does not accumulate as it does with analog amplifiers.

80. Shot noise in electronic devices is mainly due to:

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It exists only when DC current flows through a device.

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Answer: B. The random arrival of discrete charge carriers across a junction

Shot noise arises because current consists of discrete charges crossing a junction or gap at random instants; its mean-square current is 2qIB.

81. Which of the following is an example of external (not device-generated) noise?

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Where does it originate: inside or outside the receiver?

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Answer: B. Atmospheric noise from lightning discharges

Atmospheric, extraterrestrial (solar, cosmic) and man-made noise originate outside the receiver; the others are internal noise sources.

82. Noise that is simply added to the transmitted signal in the channel, independent of the signal, is modelled as:

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Recall the 'A' in AWGN.

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Answer: C. Additive noise

The AWGN channel model is r(t) = s(t) + n(t); the noise is added and does not depend on the signal.

83. A signal power of 10 mW is received along with a noise power of 1 µW. The signal-to-noise ratio is:

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Use 10 log for a power ratio.

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Answer: D. 40 dB

SNR = 10 log₁₀(10×10⁻³ / 1×10⁻⁶) = 10 log₁₀(10⁴) = 40 dB.

84. The noise figure of an amplifier is defined as:

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A noisy amplifier makes the SNR worse, so the ratio is at least 1.

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Answer: C. The ratio of input SNR to output SNR, expressed in dB

Noise factor F = (S/N)in / (S/N)out ≥ 1; noise figure NF = 10 log₁₀ F dB. A noiseless amplifier has NF = 0 dB.

85. A low-pass (baseband) signal is one whose spectrum:

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Where on the frequency axis is its energy?

Show answer

Answer: B. Is concentrated around zero frequency, from 0 up to some maximum frequency

A low-pass signal has significant spectral content from DC up to a highest frequency W; speech and video baseband signals are examples.

86. A band-pass signal has its spectral content:

Show hint

Modulated signals are typical examples.

Show answer

Answer: C. Confined to a band around a centre (carrier) frequency fc, away from zero

A band-pass signal occupies fc − B/2 to fc + B/2, with no significant content near DC; modulated signals are band-pass.

87. A band-pass signal can be written as x(t) = xI(t) cos 2πfct − xQ(t) sin 2πfct. Here xI(t) and xQ(t) are:

Show hint

These components vary slowly compared with the carrier.

Show answer

Answer: A. Low-pass in-phase and quadrature components

Any band-pass signal can be represented by two low-pass components, the in-phase xI(t) and quadrature xQ(t), which modulate quadrature carriers.

88. The 3-dB bandwidth of a system is the frequency range over which:

Show hint

−3 dB in power is a factor of about 0.5.

Show answer

Answer: B. The power gain is at least half of its maximum value

At the 3-dB points the power falls to 1/2 (voltage to 1/√2 ≈ 0.707) of its peak value.

89. An RC low-pass filter has R = 1 kΩ and C = 0.1 µF. Its 3-dB bandwidth is about:

Show hint

f = 1/(2πRC).

Show answer

Answer: D. 1.59 kHz

f3dB = 1/(2πRC) = 1/(2π × 10³ × 10⁻⁷) ≈ 1591 Hz ≈ 1.59 kHz.

90. A tuned band-pass circuit has a centre frequency of 10 MHz and a 3-dB bandwidth of 100 kHz. Its quality factor Q is:

Show hint

Q is centre frequency divided by bandwidth.

Show answer

Answer: A. 100

Q = f0/B = 10 MHz / 100 kHz = 100.

91. For distortionless transmission through a linear system, the transfer function must have:

Show hint

The output should be a scaled, delayed copy of the input.

Show answer

Answer: C. Constant magnitude and phase varying linearly with frequency over the signal band

H(f) = K e^(−j2πft₀) gives y(t) = K x(t − t₀): only scaling and delay, with no change of waveform shape.

92. A system has a constant magnitude response but a phase response that is not linear with frequency. The output will suffer from:

Show hint

Different components arrive at different times.

Show answer

Answer: A. Phase (delay) distortion

If phase is not linear, different frequency components are delayed by different amounts, which distorts the waveform even though their amplitudes are unchanged.

93. A distortionless channel has a linear phase response that reaches −π/2 rad at 1 kHz. The time delay introduced by the channel is:

Show hint

Linear phase θ = −2πft₀.

Show answer

Answer: C. 0.25 ms

θ(f) = −2πft₀, so t₀ = (π/2)/(2π × 1000) = 1/4000 s = 0.25 ms.

94. The Hilbert transformer is a linear filter whose transfer function is:

Show hint

It is a pure ±90° phase shifter.

Show answer

Answer: B. H(f) = −j sgn(f)

The Hilbert transformer shifts positive frequencies by −90° and negative frequencies by +90° with unit magnitude: H(f) = −j sgn(f).

95. The Hilbert transform of 3 cos(100t) is:

Show hint

Delay the phase of each component by 90°.

Show answer

Answer: D. 3 sin(100t)

The Hilbert transform shifts a cosine by −90°: cos(ωt − 90°) = sin(ωt), so 3 cos(100t) → 3 sin(100t).

96. The analytic signal (pre-envelope) x₊(t) = x(t) + j x̂(t) has a spectrum that is:

Show hint

1 + sgn(f) takes values 2 and 0.

Show answer

Answer: D. Zero for negative frequencies and twice X(f) for positive frequencies

X₊(f) = X(f)[1 + sgn(f)], which equals 2X(f) for f > 0, X(0) at f = 0 and 0 for f < 0.

97. A key application of the Hilbert transform in communication is:

Show hint

One sideband is cancelled using a 90°-shifted copy of the message.

Show answer

Answer: B. Generating SSB signals by the phase-shift method

The phase-shift SSB modulator combines m(t)cos ωct and m̂(t)sin ωct; the 90° shifted message m̂(t) is the Hilbert transform of m(t).

98. The signal s(t) = Ac[1 + ka m(t)] cos 2πfct represents:

Show hint

Expand the bracket: is a pure carrier term present?

Show answer

Answer: B. Conventional AM (DSB with full carrier)

The carrier term Ac cos 2πfct is present together with sidebands from Ac ka m(t) cos 2πfct, so this is standard DSB-FC AM.

99. An AM wave displayed on an oscilloscope has a maximum envelope amplitude of 15 V and a minimum of 5 V. The modulation index is:

Show hint

μ = (Vmax − Vmin)/(Vmax + Vmin).

Show answer

Answer: C. 0.5

μ = (Vmax − Vmin)/(Vmax + Vmin) = (15 − 5)/(15 + 5) = 0.5.

100. A 1 MHz carrier is amplitude modulated (DSB-FC) by a 5 kHz tone. The spectrum contains components at:

Show hint

Carrier plus upper and lower side frequencies.

Show answer

Answer: B. 995 kHz, 1000 kHz and 1005 kHz

Standard AM contains the carrier fc and the two side frequencies fc ± fm = 995 kHz and 1005 kHz; bandwidth 2fm = 10 kHz.

101. The transmission bandwidth of an SSB signal for a message of maximum frequency fm is:

Show hint

Only one of the two sidebands is sent.

Show answer

Answer: D. fm

SSB transmits only one sideband, so it needs half the bandwidth of DSB, i.e. fm.

102. Vestigial sideband (VSB) modulation was used for the video signal in analog television mainly because:

Show hint

Think of the spectrum of a video signal near 0 Hz.

Show answer

Answer: B. Video has significant low-frequency content, which makes pure SSB filtering impractical

Video extends almost to DC, so a sharp SSB filter is impossible; VSB keeps one sideband plus a vestige of the other, saving bandwidth compared with DSB.

103. Which AM variant cannot be demodulated by a simple envelope detector and requires coherent (synchronous) detection?

Show hint

Which one has no transmitted carrier?

Show answer

Answer: D. DSB-SC

In DSB-SC the envelope is |m(t)|, not m(t), so phase reversals are lost; a locally generated synchronous carrier is required.

104. A balanced modulator is used to generate:

Show hint

Its output has the carrier suppressed.

Show answer

Answer: B. DSB-SC signals

A balanced modulator cancels the carrier and outputs only the product m(t) cos ωct, i.e. DSB-SC.

105. An FM broadcast signal has a peak frequency deviation of 75 kHz and the highest audio frequency is 15 kHz. The modulation index is:

Show hint

β = Δf / fm.

Show answer

Answer: B. 5

β = Δf/fm = 75/15 = 5.

106. Using Carson's rule, the bandwidth of an FM signal with 75 kHz peak deviation and 15 kHz maximum modulating frequency is:

Show hint

Carson: B = 2(Δf + fm).

Show answer

Answer: A. 180 kHz

B = 2(Δf + fm) = 2(75 + 15) = 180 kHz.

107. The FM signal s(t) = 10 cos(2π×10⁶t + 5 sin 2π×10³t) has a peak frequency deviation of:

Show hint

Δf = β × fm.

Show answer

Answer: C. 5 kHz

The phase term is β sin 2πfmt with β = 5 and fm = 1 kHz, so Δf = βfm = 5 kHz.

108. An FM signal can be generated with a phase modulator by:

Show hint

Frequency is the derivative of phase.

Show answer

Answer: A. Integrating the message before applying it to the phase modulator

In FM the phase is proportional to the integral of m(t); so integrating m(t) and then phase-modulating gives FM (the basis of the Armstrong method).

6.4 Data communication and information theory

38 questions · AEiE0604

109. Noise generated by the random thermal motion of electrons in a resistor is called:

Show hint

It depends on temperature.

Show answer

Answer: D. Thermal (Johnson) noise

Thermal or Johnson-Nyquist noise arises from random thermal agitation of charge carriers in any conductor above 0 K.

110. The correct order of operations in converting an analog message into a PCM signal is:

Show hint

Time is discretised before amplitude.

Show answer

Answer: B. Sampling, quantising, encoding

The analog signal is first sampled in time, the sample values are then quantised to discrete levels, and each level is encoded into a binary code word.

111. According to the sampling theorem, a signal band-limited to W Hz can be recovered exactly from its samples if the sampling rate is:

Show hint

Twice the highest frequency.

Show answer

Answer: A. At least 2W samples per second

A band-limited signal is uniquely determined by samples taken at fs ≥ 2W; the minimum rate 2W is the Nyquist rate.

112. A 7 kHz sinusoid is sampled at 10 kHz and reconstructed with an ideal 5 kHz low-pass filter. The output is a tone at:

Show hint

Look for fs − f.

Show answer

Answer: A. 3 kHz

Sampling below the Nyquist rate causes aliasing: the 7 kHz tone appears at |10 − 7| = 3 kHz inside the 0–5 kHz band.

113. In which analog pulse modulation does the position (timing) of constant-width pulses vary with the message?

Show hint

The name says what varies.

Show answer

Answer: B. PPM

Pulse position modulation shifts the time of each pulse in proportion to the sample value; PAM varies amplitude and PWM varies width.

114. A telephone voice signal is sampled at 8 kHz and each sample is coded with 8 bits. The PCM bit rate is:

Show hint

Bits per sample × samples per second.

Show answer

Answer: A. 64 kbps

Bit rate = n fs = 8 × 8000 = 64 000 bps.

115. What is the minimum (Nyquist) transmission bandwidth needed for a binary PCM signal of 8 bits per sample sampled at 8 kHz?

Show hint

Minimum bandwidth is half the bit rate.

Show answer

Answer: D. 32 kHz

Rb = 64 kbps and the minimum baseband bandwidth for binary signalling is Rb/2 = 32 kHz.

116. For uniform quantisation with step size Δ, the mean-square quantisation noise (error uniformly distributed) is:

Show hint

Variance of a uniform distribution of width Δ.

Show answer

Answer: C. Δ²/12

The error is uniform over −Δ/2 to Δ/2, whose variance is Δ²/12.

117. In uniform PCM, increasing the number of bits per sample by one improves the SQNR by about:

Show hint

Halving Δ reduces Δ²/12 by a factor of four.

Show answer

Answer: D. 6 dB

Each extra bit doubles the number of levels and halves Δ, reducing noise power by 4, i.e. about 6 dB.

118. The main purpose of non-uniform quantisation (companding) in speech PCM is to:

Show hint

Speech has many low-amplitude samples.

Show answer

Answer: A. Give a more uniform SQNR for weak and strong signals

Companding uses small steps for small amplitudes and larger steps for large ones, so weak speech signals get adequate SQNR without more bits.

119. A mid-tread uniform quantiser is one that:

Show hint

Think of a staircase with a flat tread at the origin.

Show answer

Answer: C. Has zero as one of its output levels

In a mid-tread quantiser zero is an output (reconstruction) level; in a mid-rise quantiser zero is a decision threshold, so there is no zero output level.

120. Delta modulation (DM) transmits:

Show hint

It is the simplest form of differential coding.

Show answer

Answer: C. One bit per sample indicating whether the signal is above or below its staircase approximation

DM is 1-bit DPCM: each bit tells the receiver to step the staircase up or down by Δ.

121. In Huffman source coding, symbols with higher probability are assigned:

Show hint

Morse code uses the same idea.

Show answer

Answer: B. Shorter code words

Huffman coding is a variable-length prefix code that gives short code words to frequent symbols, minimising the average code length.

122. The Shannon-Hartley theorem gives the channel capacity of an AWGN channel of bandwidth B and signal-to-noise ratio S/N as:

Show hint

The logarithm is to base 2.

Show answer

Answer: B. C = B log₂(1 + S/N)

Shannon-Hartley: C = B log₂(1 + S/N) bits per second, with S/N as a power ratio (not in dB).

123. A telephone channel has a bandwidth of 3 kHz and an SNR of 30 dB. Its Shannon capacity is about:

Show hint

Convert 30 dB to a ratio first.

Show answer

Answer: C. 29.9 kbps

S/N = 10³; C = 3000 log₂(1001) ≈ 3000 × 9.97 ≈ 29.9 kbps.

124. A T1 frame carries 24 voice channels of 8 bits each plus 1 framing bit, at 8000 frames per second. The T1 line rate is:

Show hint

Count the bits in one frame first.

Show answer

Answer: D. 1.544 Mbps

(24 × 8 + 1) bits × 8000 frames/s = 193 × 8000 = 1 544 000 bps.

125. Guard bands are a feature of which multiplexing technique?

Show hint

Gaps between adjacent channel spectra.

Show answer

Answer: D. Frequency-division multiplexing

In FDM, unused frequency gaps (guard bands) are left between adjacent channels so practical filters can separate them without crosstalk.

126. The amount of information carried by a message is:

Show hint

A surprising message tells you more.

Show answer

Answer: B. Larger for less probable messages

Self-information I = log₂(1/p) increases as probability p decreases; a certain event (p = 1) carries no information.

127. A symbol occurs with probability 1/8. The information it conveys is:

Show hint

I = log₂(1/p).

Show answer

Answer: A. 3 bits

I = log₂(1/p) = log₂ 8 = 3 bits.

128. A source emits four symbols with probabilities 1/2, 1/4, 1/8 and 1/8. Its entropy is:

Show hint

H = Σ p log₂(1/p).

Show answer

Answer: A. 1.75 bits/symbol

H = ½(1) + ¼(2) + ⅛(3) + ⅛(3) = 0.5 + 0.5 + 0.375 + 0.375 = 1.75 bits/symbol.

129. A prefix (instantaneous) code is one in which:

Show hint

Think of decoding without waiting for the next bits.

Show answer

Answer: B. No code word is the beginning of any other code word

In a prefix code no code word is a prefix of another, so each code word can be decoded as soon as it ends; Huffman codes are prefix codes.

130. A disadvantage of unipolar NRZ line coding is that it:

Show hint

What is the average voltage of a 0/+V signal?

Show answer

Answer: B. Has a significant DC component and no guaranteed transitions for timing

Unipolar NRZ uses 0 and +V only, so the average is non-zero (DC), and long runs of 1s or 0s give no transitions for clock recovery.

131. In bipolar AMI line coding, binary 1s are represented by:

Show hint

'Alternate mark inversion' says it all.

Show answer

Answer: D. Pulses of alternating polarity, with 0s as zero voltage

AMI sends 0 as zero volts and successive 1s as +V, −V, +V …, which removes the DC component and allows detection of single errors as bipolar violations.

132. Manchester line coding is widely used because:

Show hint

Look at the middle of each bit.

Show answer

Answer: A. Every bit has a mid-bit transition, so it is self-clocking with no DC component

The guaranteed mid-bit transition carries timing and makes the average zero, at the cost of about twice the bandwidth of NRZ.

133. Inter-symbol interference (ISI) in a baseband system is caused mainly by:

Show hint

Neighbouring pulses overlap.

Show answer

Answer: C. Spreading of pulses beyond their symbol interval due to limited channel bandwidth

A band-limited channel spreads each pulse in time, so the tails of neighbouring pulses add to the sample of the current pulse.

134. According to the Nyquist criterion, the maximum symbol rate for zero-ISI transmission through an ideal channel of bandwidth 4 kHz is:

Show hint

Rs,max = 2B.

Show answer

Answer: C. 8000 symbols/s

An ideal low-pass channel of bandwidth B supports up to 2B = 8000 symbols/s without ISI (sinc pulses).

135. Binary data at 10 kbps is sent with raised-cosine pulse shaping of roll-off factor α = 0.5. The required baseband bandwidth is:

Show hint

B = (R/2)(1 + α).

Show answer

Answer: D. 7.5 kHz

B = (Rb/2)(1 + α) = 5 kHz × 1.5 = 7.5 kHz.

136. The Hamming distance between the code words 1011010 and 1001011 is:

Show hint

Count positions where the bits differ.

Show answer

Answer: B. 2

They differ in the 3rd and 7th positions, so the Hamming distance is 2.

137. A block code has a minimum Hamming distance of 5. The number of bit errors per code word it can always correct is:

Show hint

dmin ≥ 2t + 1.

Show answer

Answer: A. 2

Correction of t errors needs dmin ≥ 2t + 1, so t = ⌊(5 − 1)/2⌋ = 2.

138. The code rate of the (7, 4) Hamming code and the number of bit errors it can correct per code word are:

Show hint

Rate = k/n; dmin of Hamming codes is 3.

Show answer

Answer: B. About 0.57 and one

Code rate = k/n = 4/7 ≈ 0.57; with dmin = 3 it corrects one error per code word.

139. Which statement correctly distinguishes ARQ from FEC?

Show hint

Which one needs a feedback channel?

Show answer

Answer: C. ARQ detects errors and requests retransmission; FEC corrects errors at the receiver without a return channel

Automatic repeat request needs a feedback channel and retransmits erroneous frames; forward error correction adds enough redundancy to correct errors directly.

140. A random process is best described as:

Show hint

Fix the time and you get a random variable.

Show answer

Answer: D. An ensemble (collection) of time functions, one of which occurs in each trial

A random process X(t, s) assigns a sample function of time to each outcome s; at any fixed time it is a random variable.

141. A random process X(t) is wide-sense stationary (WSS) if:

Show hint

Only the mean and autocorrelation are checked.

Show answer

Answer: A. Its mean is constant and its autocorrelation depends only on the time difference τ

WSS needs only first- and second-order conditions: E[X(t)] = constant and R(t, t+τ) = R(τ). Full shift-invariance of all distributions is strict-sense stationarity.

142. The Wiener-Khinchin theorem states that the power spectral density of a WSS process is:

Show hint

Transform from the τ domain to the f domain.

Show answer

Answer: A. The Fourier transform of its autocorrelation function

S(f) = ∫ R(τ) e^(−j2πfτ) dτ; the PSD and autocorrelation form a Fourier transform pair.

143. White noise is defined as noise whose power spectral density:

Show hint

By analogy with white light.

Show answer

Answer: D. Is constant (flat) over all frequencies

White noise has a flat two-sided PSD of N0/2 W/Hz at all frequencies, by analogy with white light containing all colours equally.

144. The autocorrelation function of white noise with two-sided PSD N0/2 is:

Show hint

Inverse Fourier transform of a constant.

Show answer

Answer: A. (N0/2) δ(τ)

The inverse Fourier transform of a constant N0/2 is the impulse (N0/2)δ(τ).

145. The mean-square open-circuit thermal noise voltage of a resistor R at absolute temperature T over bandwidth B is:

Show hint

Don't confuse it with available power.

Show answer

Answer: A. 4kTRB

Johnson-Nyquist: v̄² = 4kTRB; kTB is the available noise power and 2qIB is shot noise.

146. The RMS thermal noise voltage of a 10 kΩ resistor at 300 K over a 10 kHz bandwidth is about (k = 1.38×10⁻²³ J/K):

Show hint

Take the square root of 4kTRB.

Show answer

Answer: D. 1.29 µV

v = √(4kTRB) = √(4 × 1.38×10⁻²³ × 300 × 10⁴ × 10⁴) = √(1.66×10⁻¹²) ≈ 1.29 µV.

6.5 Signal and system

32 questions · AEiE0605

147. A signal is best defined as:

Show hint

Think of what a microphone voltage or an image represents.

Show answer

Answer: A. A function of one or more independent variables that conveys information about a physical phenomenon

A signal is a function of independent variables (time, space, etc.) carrying information; a system is what processes it.

148. What is the total energy of the signal x(t) = e^(−2t)·u(t)?

Show hint

Square the signal before integrating.

Show answer

Answer: B. 0.25 J

E = ∫₀^∞ e^(−4t) dt = 1/4 = 0.25 J.

149. What is the average power of x(t) = 5 cos(100πt + π/3)?

Show hint

Average power of a sinusoid depends only on its amplitude.

Show answer

Answer: C. 12.5 W

For A cos(ωt + φ), the average power is A²/2 = 25/2 = 12.5 W; the phase does not matter.

150. What is the fundamental period of the discrete-time signal x[n] = cos(3πn/8)?

Show hint

N must be an integer, so find the smallest k that makes 16k/3 whole.

Show answer

Answer: D. 16 samples

N = 2πk/ω₀ = 16k/3; the smallest integer N occurs for k = 3, giving N = 16.

151. What is the value of ∫ (t² + 3)·δ(t − 2) dt taken over all time?

Show hint

The impulse picks out the value of the other factor at one instant.

Show answer

Answer: C. 7

By the sifting property the integral equals (t² + 3) at t = 2, i.e. 4 + 3 = 7.

152. The scaled impulse δ(2t) is equal to:

Show hint

Compare the areas under δ(2t) and δ(t).

Show answer

Answer: D. 0.5 δ(t)

δ(at) = δ(t)/|a|, so δ(2t) = δ(t)/2.

153. The unit step u(t) is related to the unit impulse δ(t) by:

Show hint

Think about the area accumulated by an impulse as time passes t = 0.

Show answer

Answer: B. u(t) is the running integral of δ(t)

u(t) = ∫ from −∞ to t of δ(τ) dτ, equivalently δ(t) = du(t)/dt.

154. The normalised sinc function sinc(x) = sin(πx)/(πx) has value 1 at x = 0 and is zero at:

Show hint

Where does sin(πx) vanish?

Show answer

Answer: D. All non-zero integer values of x

sin(πx) = 0 when x is an integer; at x = 0 the limit is 1, so the zeros are at x = ±1, ±2, ...

155. The signum function sgn(t) can be written in terms of the unit step as:

Show hint

Check the value of your expression for positive and for negative t.

Show answer

Answer: B. 2u(t) − 1

sgn(t) = +1 for t > 0 and −1 for t < 0, which equals 2u(t) − 1.

156. If x[n] = {1, 2, 1} (starting at n = 0) is applied to an LTI system with h[n] = {1, 1}, the output y[n] is:

Show hint

The output length is N₁ + N₂ − 1.

Show answer

Answer: C. {1, 3, 3, 1}

Linear convolution: y[0]=1, y[1]=2+1=3, y[2]=1+2=3, y[3]=1; the length is 3+2−1 = 4.

157. The convolution of the unit step with itself, u(t) * u(t), is:

Show hint

Convolving with u(t) is the same as integrating.

Show answer

Answer: C. t·u(t), the unit ramp

u(t)*u(t) = ∫₀^t 1 dτ = t for t ≥ 0, i.e. the unit ramp r(t) = t·u(t).

158. For an LTI system, the output for any input is completely determined by:

Show hint

Which single response lets you compute the output by convolution?

Show answer

Answer: B. Its impulse response

y(t) = x(t) * h(t); the impulse response fully characterises an LTI system.

159. Which of the following systems is linear and time-invariant?

Show hint

Test each one for additivity and for the effect of a shifted input.

Show answer

Answer: A. y(t) = 3 x(t − 2)

3x(t−2) is a scaled delay (LTI). x+2 fails homogeneity, t·x(t) and x(2t) are time-varying.

160. A real periodic signal has odd symmetry and half-wave symmetry (like a square wave centred on t = 0). Its trigonometric Fourier series contains:

Show hint

Apply the two symmetry rules one after the other.

Show answer

Answer: D. Only sine terms of odd harmonics

Odd symmetry removes a₀ and cosine terms; half-wave symmetry removes even harmonics, leaving odd-harmonic sines.

161. A periodic signal is x(t) = 3 + 4 cos(ω₀t) + 2 sin(3ω₀t). Its average power is:

Show hint

DC power is A², each sinusoid contributes A²/2.

Show answer

Answer: D. 19 W

By Parseval: P = 3² + 4²/2 + 2²/2 = 9 + 8 + 2 = 19 W.

162. Near a jump discontinuity, the partial sum of a Fourier series overshoots by about 9% of the jump no matter how many terms are taken. This is called:

Show hint

The effect is named after a physicist who explained it in 1899.

Show answer

Answer: B. Gibbs phenomenon

The persistent ≈9% overshoot near discontinuities is Gibbs phenomenon.

163. Which property holds for the exponential Fourier series coefficients cₖ of a real, even periodic signal?

Show hint

Combine conjugate symmetry with even symmetry.

Show answer

Answer: D. cₖ are real and even in k

A real signal gives c₋ₖ = cₖ*; even symmetry makes the coefficients real, so they are real and even.

164. The Fourier transform of x(t) = e^(−at)·u(t), a > 0, is:

Show hint

Combine the two exponents and integrate from 0 to ∞.

Show answer

Answer: C. 1/(a + jω)

X(ω) = ∫₀^∞ e^(−at) e^(−jωt) dt = 1/(a + jω).

165. The Fourier transform of the signum function sgn(t) is:

Show hint

The signum has zero average value, so no impulse at ω = 0.

Show answer

Answer: A. 2/(jω)

sgn(t) is the limit of e^(−a|t|)sgn(t); its transform tends to 2/(jω). Note u(t) = (1 + sgn t)/2 gives πδ(ω) + 1/(jω).

166. A rectangular pulse of width 2 ms is centred at t = 0. Its amplitude spectrum has the first zero crossing at:

Show hint

Nulls of the sinc occur at multiples of 1/T.

Show answer

Answer: A. 500 Hz

The transform is A·T·sinc(fT); the first null is at f = 1/T = 1/0.002 = 500 Hz.

167. A signal x(t) is band-limited to 4 kHz. The bandwidth of x(3t) is:

Show hint

Compression in time means expansion in frequency.

Show answer

Answer: B. 12 kHz

x(at) ↔ (1/|a|)X(ω/a); compressing time by 3 expands the spectrum by 3, giving 12 kHz.

168. Delaying a signal by t₀ seconds changes its Fourier transform X(ω) to:

Show hint

A delay should not change the magnitude spectrum.

Show answer

Answer: A. X(ω)·e^(−jωt₀)

The time-shift property: x(t − t₀) ↔ X(ω)e^(−jωt₀); only the phase changes.

169. According to the Wiener–Khinchin theorem, the power spectral density of a wide-sense stationary signal is:

Show hint

It links a time-domain correlation to a frequency-domain density.

Show answer

Answer: B. The Fourier transform of its autocorrelation function

Sₓ(f) = F{Rₓ(τ)} for a WSS process (Wiener–Khinchin).

170. The energy spectral density of x(t) = e^(−2t)·u(t) at ω = 0 is:

Show hint

ESD is the squared magnitude of the Fourier transform.

Show answer

Answer: B. 0.25

Ψ(ω) = |X(ω)|² = 1/(4 + ω²); at ω = 0 it is 1/4 = 0.25.

171. The DTFT X(e^jω) of any discrete-time sequence is always:

Show hint

Consider e^(−jωn) when ω increases by 2π.

Show answer

Answer: C. Periodic in ω with period 2π

Because e^(−j(ω+2π)n) = e^(−jωn) for integer n, X(e^jω) repeats every 2π.

172. For x[n] = (0.5)ⁿ·u[n], the value of its DTFT at ω = 0 is:

Show hint

At ω = 0 the DTFT is simply the sum of all samples.

Show answer

Answer: C. 2

X(e^jω) = 1/(1 − 0.5e^(−jω)); at ω = 0 it is 1/(1 − 0.5) = 2 (also the sum of the samples).

173. A periodic impulse train x[n] with period N = 4 has x[0] = 1 and x[1] = x[2] = x[3] = 0 in each period. Its DTFS coefficients aₖ (with the 1/N factor in the analysis equation) are:

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Only the n = 0 term survives in the sum.

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Answer: C. aₖ = 1/4 for every k

aₖ = (1/N) Σ x[n]e^(−j2πkn/N) = (1/4)·1 = 1/4 for k = 0,1,2,3.

174. A discrete-time periodic signal with fundamental period N has how many distinct Fourier series coefficients?

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Discrete-time complex exponentials repeat after N harmonics.

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Answer: A. N

The DTFS coefficients are themselves periodic with period N, so only N are distinct.

175. For a continuous-time LTI system, which condition guarantees BIBO stability?

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The test uses the absolute value of h(t).

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Answer: C. ∫|h(t)| dt over all t is finite

An LTI system is BIBO stable if and only if its impulse response is absolutely integrable.

176. Two LTI systems with impulse responses h₁(t) and h₂(t) are connected in cascade. The overall impulse response is:

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In frequency it is the product of H₁ and H₂.

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Answer: D. h₁(t) * h₂(t)

A cascade of LTI systems has the convolution of the impulse responses (product of frequency responses).

177. The complex exponential e^(jω₀t) applied to an LTI system produces the output H(jω₀)e^(jω₀t). For this reason complex exponentials are called:

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The input shape is preserved; only a complex scale factor appears.

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Answer: C. Eigenfunctions of LTI systems

The output is the same exponential scaled by the eigenvalue H(jω₀), so e^(jω₀t) is an eigenfunction.

178. For the system y[n] = 0.5(x[n] + x[n − 1]), what is |H(e^jω)| at ω = π/2?

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Factor out e^(−jω/2) to get a cosine.

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Answer: C. 0.707

H(e^jω) = 0.5(1 + e^(−jω)) ⇒ |H| = |cos(ω/2)| = cos(π/4) ≈ 0.707.

6.6 Digital Signal Processing

38 questions · AEiE0606

179. For stability of a causal LTI system, all poles of the transfer function must lie:

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The jω-axis maps onto the unit circle.

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Answer: D. In the left half of the s-plane for continuous time, and inside the unit circle of the z-plane for discrete time

Causal CT stability needs Re(poles) < 0; causal DT stability needs |poles| < 1.

180. The (bilateral) z-transform of a sequence x[n] is defined as:

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The power of z carries a negative sign.

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Answer: A. X(z) = Σ x[n]·z⁻ⁿ summed over all n

The bilateral z-transform is Σ from −∞ to ∞ of x[n]z⁻ⁿ; the DTFT is its value on the unit circle.

181. The z-transform of x[n] = aⁿ·u[n] and its region of convergence are:

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It is a geometric series in a z⁻¹.

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Answer: D. 1/(1 − a z⁻¹), |z| > |a|

Σ (a z⁻¹)ⁿ converges to 1/(1 − a z⁻¹) when |a z⁻¹| < 1, i.e. |z| > |a|.

182. Both aⁿu[n] and −aⁿu[−n−1] have the same algebraic z-transform 1/(1 − a z⁻¹). They are distinguished by:

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The expression is identical, so something else must differ.

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Answer: C. Their regions of convergence

The first has ROC |z| > |a| (right-sided), the second |z| < |a| (left-sided); X(z) alone is not unique without the ROC.

183. For a finite-duration causal sequence such as x[n] = {1, 2, 3} (n = 0, 1, 2), the ROC is:

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Where do terms in z⁻¹ become infinite?

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Answer: D. The entire z-plane except z = 0

X(z) = 1 + 2z⁻¹ + 3z⁻² is finite everywhere except at z = 0 where the negative powers blow up.

184. Which statement about the region of convergence of a z-transform is correct?

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What is the value of X(z) at a pole?

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Answer: B. The ROC cannot contain any pole

At a pole X(z) is infinite, so poles bound the ROC; a two-sided sequence has an annular ROC.

185. A system has H(z) with poles at z = 0.5 and z = 2. If the system is causal, then it is:

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Causality fixes the ROC; stability needs the unit circle inside it.

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Answer: C. Unstable, because its ROC |z| > 2 does not include the unit circle

Causal ⇒ ROC outside the outermost pole (|z| > 2), which excludes |z| = 1, so it is unstable.

186. The z-transform of x[n − k] (k > 0, causal x) is:

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z⁻¹ is the unit delay operator.

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Answer: D. z⁻ᵏ X(z)

Time-shift property: a delay of k samples multiplies X(z) by z⁻ᵏ.

187. The convolution y[n] = x[n] * h[n] corresponds in the z-domain to:

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Same idea as the Laplace and Fourier convolution properties.

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Answer: D. Y(z) = X(z)·H(z)

The convolution property of the z-transform: convolution in time becomes multiplication in z.

188. The inverse z-transform of X(z) = 1/(1 − 0.5z⁻¹), |z| > 0.5, evaluated at n = 2 is:

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Identify the standard pair aⁿu[n].

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Answer: A. 0.25

x[n] = (0.5)ⁿu[n], so x[2] = 0.25.

189. By Parseval's theorem, the energy of x[n] = (0.5)ⁿ·u[n] is:

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Square each sample and sum the geometric series.

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Answer: B. 4/3

Σ|x[n]|² = Σ(0.25)ⁿ = 1/(1 − 0.25) = 4/3; the same value results from (1/2π)∫|X(e^jω)|² dω.

190. A stable causal system H(z) = (1 + z⁻¹)/2 is driven by cos(πn/3). The steady-state output amplitude is:

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Evaluate H(z) on the unit circle at z = e^(jπ/3).

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Answer: C. 0.866

|H(e^jω)| = |cos(ω/2)|; at ω = π/3, cos(π/6) ≈ 0.866.

191. When a sinusoid is suddenly applied at n = 0 to a stable causal system H(z), the total response consists of:

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Separate the response into terms from the system poles and from the input poles.

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Answer: A. A transient part from the poles of H(z) that decays to zero, plus a steady-state sinusoid scaled by H(e^jω₀)

For a stable system the system-pole terms die out, leaving |H(e^jω₀)|cos(ω₀n + ∠H(e^jω₀)).

192. What is the DC gain of H(z) = 1/(1 − 0.8z⁻¹)?

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DC (ω = 0) maps to z = 1.

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Answer: B. 5

DC corresponds to z = 1: H(1) = 1/(1 − 0.8) = 5.

193. A filter has a single zero at z = −1 and a single pole at z = 0.9. It acts as a:

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z = 1 is ω = 0 and z = −1 is ω = π.

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Answer: B. Low-pass filter

The pole near z = 1 boosts low frequencies and the zero at z = −1 (ω = π) kills the highest frequency, giving a low-pass response.

194. The N-point DFT X[k] of a finite sequence is related to its z-transform by:

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The DFT samples lie on the unit circle.

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Answer: B. X[k] = X(z) evaluated at z = e^(j2πk/N)

The DFT samples the z-transform at N equally spaced points on the unit circle.

195. The 4-point DFT of x[n] = {1, 1, 1, 1} is:

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A constant has energy only at DC.

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Answer: D. {4, 0, 0, 0}

X[0] = sum of samples = 4; for k ≠ 0 the complex exponentials sum to zero.

196. For x[n] = {1, 2, 3, 4}, the 4-point DFT value X[1] is:

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For N = 4, W₄ = −j.

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Answer: C. −2 + 2j

X[1] = Σ x[n](−j)ⁿ = 1 − 2j − 3 + 4j = −2 + 2j.

197. A signal sampled at 8 kHz is analysed with a 256-point DFT. The frequency spacing between DFT bins is:

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Divide the sampling rate by the number of points.

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Answer: A. 31.25 Hz

Δf = fs/N = 8000/256 = 31.25 Hz.

198. The 2-point circular convolution of x[n] = {1, 2} and h[n] = {3, 4} is:

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Indices wrap modulo 2.

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Answer: C. {11, 10}

y[0] = 1·3 + 2·4 = 11 and y[1] = 1·4 + 2·3 = 10.

199. Two sequences of lengths 50 and 30 are to be linearly convolved using DFTs. The minimum DFT length that avoids wrap-around error is:

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Find the length of the linear convolution result.

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Answer: B. 79

Circular convolution equals linear convolution when N ≥ L + M − 1 = 50 + 30 − 1 = 79.

200. Multiplying the N-point DFTs of two sequences and taking the inverse DFT gives their:

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DFT treats sequences as one period of a periodic signal.

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Answer: A. N-point circular convolution

The DFT product property: X₁[k]X₂[k] ↔ x₁[n] ⊛ x₂[n] (circular convolution modulo N).

201. x[n] is real and its 8-point DFT has X[1] = 2 + 3j. Then X[7] equals:

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Real sequences have conjugate-symmetric DFTs.

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Answer: A. 2 − 3j

For real x[n], X[N − k] = X*[k], so X[7] = X*[1] = 2 − 3j.

202. A circular shift x[(n − m) mod N] in time corresponds in the DFT domain to:

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A shift in one domain is a phase factor in the other.

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Answer: C. Multiplying X[k] by e^(−j2πkm/N)

Circular time shift ↔ multiplication by the linear phase factor W_N^(km) = e^(−j2πkm/N).

203. For x[n] = {1, 2, 3, 4}, Σ|X[k]|² over its 4-point DFT equals:

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Mind the 1/N factor in the DFT form of Parseval's relation.

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Answer: C. 120

Parseval for the DFT: Σ|x[n]|² = (1/N)Σ|X[k]|², so Σ|X[k]|² = 4 × 30 = 120.

204. The N-point DFT of the unit impulse δ[n] is:

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Only the n = 0 term contributes.

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Answer: A. 1 for every k

X[k] = Σ δ[n]W^(kn) = W⁰ = 1 for all k.

205. In the classical approach to IIR filter design, a digital filter is obtained by:

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IIR design borrows from mature analog filter theory.

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Answer: D. Designing an analog prototype (e.g. Butterworth or Chebyshev) and mapping it to the z-domain

IIR design commonly converts a well-known analog filter to digital via impulse invariance or the bilinear transformation; the other options are FIR methods.

206. The magnitude response of a Butterworth low-pass filter is:

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No ripple anywhere.

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Answer: A. Maximally flat in the passband and monotonic everywhere

|H|² = 1/(1 + (Ω/Ωc)^(2N)) has all derivatives zero at Ω = 0 and decreases monotonically.

207. At its cutoff frequency Ωc, the gain of a Butterworth filter of any order is:

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Substitute Ω = Ωc in |H|².

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Answer: C. −3 dB

At Ω = Ωc, |H|² = 1/2, i.e. 10 log₁₀(0.5) ≈ −3 dB regardless of N.

208. What is the minimum order of a Butterworth low-pass filter that gives at least 30 dB attenuation at twice the cutoff (3 dB) frequency?

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Set 10 log₁₀(1 + 2^(2N)) ≥ 30 and solve for N.

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Answer: A. 5

Need 1 + 2^(2N) ≥ 10³ ⇒ N ≥ log₁₀(999)/(2 log₁₀2) ≈ 4.98, so N = 5.

209. In the impulse-invariance method, an analog pole at s = pₖ maps to a digital pole at:

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Sample the exponential e^(pₖt) at t = nT.

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Answer: B. z = e^(pₖT)

Sampling hₐ(t) = e^(pₖt) at t = nT gives (e^(pₖT))ⁿ, i.e. a pole at z = e^(pₖT).

210. Using impulse invariance with T = 0.1 s, the analog filter H(s) = 1/(s + 2) gives a digital pole at approximately:

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Use z = e^(pT) with p = −2.

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Answer: A. 0.819

z = e^(−2 × 0.1) = e^(−0.2) ≈ 0.819.

211. The impulse-invariance method is unsuitable for designing high-pass and band-stop filters because:

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Sampling a non-band-limited response causes what?

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Answer: A. The frequency response of the sampled impulse response suffers from aliasing

Impulse invariance samples hₐ(t); since high-pass responses are not band-limited, the spectral copies overlap (aliasing).

212. In FIR design by Fourier series (window) method, the ideal low-pass impulse response with cutoff ωc and delay α is hd[n] = sin(ωc(n − α))/(π(n − α)). For ωc = π/4, hd[α] equals:

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Use sin(x)/x → 1 as x → 0.

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Answer: D. 0.25

At n = α the limit is ωc/π = 0.25.

213. Truncating the ideal impulse response with a rectangular window causes:

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Abrupt truncation in time causes ripple in frequency.

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Answer: A. Gibbs oscillations, giving a minimum stopband attenuation of only about 21 dB

The rectangular window's large sidelobes produce ripple near the band edge; peak stopband attenuation is about 21 dB regardless of length.

214. Arrange the windows in increasing order of minimum stopband attenuation:

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The rectangular window is the worst.

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Answer: A. Rectangular, Hanning, Hamming, Blackman

Typical values: rectangular ≈ 21 dB, Hanning ≈ 44 dB, Hamming ≈ 53 dB, Blackman ≈ 74 dB.

215. The Hamming window w[n] = 0.54 − 0.46 cos(2πn/(M − 1)) has the value at its end points (n = 0 and n = M − 1) of:

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Put n = 0 into the formula.

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Answer: C. 0.08

At n = 0, cos(0) = 1 so w = 0.54 − 0.46 = 0.08 (unlike the Hanning window, which goes to zero).

216. Using the approximation that the transition width of a Hamming-window design equals its main-lobe width 8π/M, the length M needed for a transition width of 0.1π rad/sample is:

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Solve 8π/M = 0.1π for M.

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Answer: D. 80

M = 8π/Δω = 8π/(0.1π) = 80.

Questions written for this site against the official NEC syllabus topics, with every answer worked and checked.

Questions are sorted into the official NEC syllabus topics; a few that sit between two topics may be filed under either.