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Chapter 7 · 6 hours

Momentum principle and flow analysis

IOE past exam questions

Past questions and answers

12 questions set from this chapter. Most repeated first.

  • 2078 Kartik · 9 marks

The diameter of a pipe-bend is 300 mm at inlet and 150 mm at outlet and the flow is turned through 120° in a vertical plane. The axis at inlet is horizontal and the center of outlet section is 1.4 m below the center of inlet section. The total volume of fluid contained in the bend is 0.085 m³. Neglecting friction, calculate the magnitude and direction of the net force exerted on the bend by water flowing through it at 0.23 m³/s when the inlet gauge pressure is 140 kPa. Take head loss in the bend as 0.25V2/2g0.25 V^2/2g, where V = velocity at inlet pipe.

Similar questions: Force on 120° bend, 300 lps (2076 Asoj)

Answer

Given: d1=0.3d_1 = 0.3 m, d2=0.15d_2 = 0.15 m, deflection 120∘120^\circ, Q=0.23Q = 0.23 m³/s, outlet 1.4 m below inlet, volume of fluid in bend =0.085= 0.085 m³, p1=140p_1 = 140 kPa (gauge), hL=0.25V12/2gh_L = 0.25V_1^2/2g.

 inlet 1  --->  [ bend ]
 (horizontal)        \ 120 deg
                      \
                       v  outlet 2 (1.4 m lower)

Take xx along the inlet flow and yy upward. The outlet velocity direction is 120∘120^\circ from the inlet direction, pointing downward: unit vector (cos⁡120∘,−sin⁡120∘)=(−0.5,−0.866)(\cos120^\circ, -\sin120^\circ) = (-0.5, -0.866).

Velocities and outlet pressure

A1=0.070686 m2,A2=0.017671 m2V1=0.230.070686=3.254 m/s,V2=0.230.017671=13.015 m/shL=0.25×3.254219.62=0.135 m\begin{aligned} A_1 &= 0.070686\ \text{m}^2,\quad A_2 = 0.017671\ \text{m}^2\\ V_1 &= \frac{0.23}{0.070686} = 3.254\ \text{m/s},\quad V_2 = \frac{0.23}{0.017671} = 13.015\ \text{m/s}\\ h_L &= 0.25\times\frac{3.254^2}{19.62} = 0.135\ \text{m} \end{aligned} p2γ=p1γ+V12−V222g+1.4−hL\frac{p_2}{\gamma} = \frac{p_1}{\gamma} + \frac{V_1^2 - V_2^2}{2g} + 1.4 - h_L p2=140 000+9810(0.5396−8.6338+1.4−0.1349)=73 005 Pap_2 = 140\,000 + 9810\left(0.5396 - 8.6338 + 1.4 - 0.1349\right) = 73\,005\ \text{Pa}

Forces

  • p1A1=140 000×0.070686=9896 Np_1A_1 = 140\,000\times 0.070686 = 9896\ \text{N} (in +x+x)
  • p2A2=73 005×0.017671=1290 Np_2A_2 = 73\,005\times 0.017671 = 1290\ \text{N} (acts opposite to the outlet flow direction, i.e. along (+0.5,+0.866)(+0.5, +0.866))
  • Weight of fluid W=9810×0.085=834 NW = 9810\times 0.085 = 834\ \text{N} (downward)
  • ρQ=1000×0.23=230\rho Q = 1000\times 0.23 = 230 kg/s

Momentum equation (forces on fluid, RR = force of the bend on fluid):

x:  p1A1+p2A2 (0.5)+Rx=ρQ (V2cos⁡120∘−V1)9896+645+Rx=230(−6.508−3.254)=−2245Rx=−12 786 Ny:  p2A2 (0.866)−W+Ry=ρQ (V2sin⁡(−120∘))1117−834+Ry=230(−11.272)=−2593Ry=−2876 N\begin{aligned} x:\ \ p_1A_1 + p_2A_2\,(0.5) + R_x &= \rho Q\,(V_2\cos120^\circ - V_1)\\ 9896 + 645 + R_x &= 230(-6.508 - 3.254) = -2245\\ R_x &= -12\,786\ \text{N}\\[4pt] y:\ \ p_2A_2\,(0.866) - W + R_y &= \rho Q\,(V_2\sin(-120^\circ))\\ 1117 - 834 + R_y &= 230(-11.272) = -2593\\ R_y &= -2876\ \text{N} \end{aligned}

The force exerted by the water on the bend is the opposite of RR:

Fx=+12 786 N,Fy=+2876 NF_x = +12\,786\ \text{N},\qquad F_y = +2876\ \text{N} F=12 7862+28762=13 106 N,θ=tan⁡−1287612 786=12.7∘F = \sqrt{12\,786^2 + 2876^2} = 13\,106\ \text{N},\qquad \theta = \tan^{-1}\frac{2876}{12\,786} = 12.7^\circ

Answer: net force on the bend ≈13.1\approx 13.1 kN, acting at 12.7∘12.7^\circ above the horizontal (in the direction of the inlet flow), with Fx=12.79F_x = 12.79 kN and Fy=2.88F_y = 2.88 kN upward.

  • 2076 Asoj · 8 marks

The diameter of a pipe bend is 300 mm at inlet and 150 mm at outlet and the flow is turned through 120° in vertical plane, the axis of inlet is horizontal and the centre of the outlet section is 1.5 below the centre of the inlet section, the total volume of fluid contained in the bend is 0.09 m³. Neglecting friction, calculate the magnitude and direction of the force exerted by the water on the bend by the water flowing through it at 300 lps when the inlet pressure is 130 KPa.

Similar questions: Force on 120° pipe bend, 0.23 m³/s (2078 Kartik)

Answer

Given: d1=0.3d_1 = 0.3 m, d2=0.15d_2 = 0.15 m, deflection 120∘120^\circ in a vertical plane, inlet horizontal, outlet 1.5 m below the inlet, volume of fluid =0.09= 0.09 m³, Q=300Q = 300 L/s =0.3= 0.3 m³/s, p1=130p_1 = 130 kPa (gauge). Friction is neglected.

 1 --->  [ bend ]
              \ 120 deg
               \
                v 2 (1.5 m lower)

Take xx along the inlet flow, yy upward. Outlet direction: (cos⁡120∘,−sin⁡120∘)=(−0.5,−0.866)(\cos120^\circ, -\sin120^\circ) = (-0.5, -0.866).

Velocities and outlet pressure

A1=0.070686 m2,A2=0.017671 m2V1=4.244 m/s,V2=16.977 m/s\begin{aligned} A_1 &= 0.070686\ \text{m}^2,\quad A_2 = 0.017671\ \text{m}^2\\ V_1 &= 4.244\ \text{m/s},\quad V_2 = 16.977\ \text{m/s} \end{aligned}

Bernoulli (no loss):

p2=p1+γ[V12−V222g+1.5]=130 000+9810 (0.918−14.690+1.5)=9620 Pap_2 = p_1 + \gamma\left[\frac{V_1^2 - V_2^2}{2g} + 1.5\right] = 130\,000 + 9810\,(0.918 - 14.690 + 1.5) = 9620\ \text{Pa}

Forces

  • p1A1=130 000×0.070686=9189 Np_1A_1 = 130\,000\times 0.070686 = 9189\ \text{N}
  • p2A2=9620×0.017671=170 Np_2A_2 = 9620\times 0.017671 = 170\ \text{N}
  • W=9810×0.09=883 NW = 9810\times 0.09 = 883\ \text{N}
  • ρQ=300\rho Q = 300 kg/s

Momentum equation (RR = force of the bend on the water):

x:  9189+170(0.5)+Rx=300 (16.977×(−0.5)−4.244)=−3830Rx=−13 104 Ny:  170(0.866)−883+Ry=300 (−16.977×0.866)=−4411Ry=−3675 N\begin{aligned} x:\ \ 9189 + 170(0.5) + R_x &= 300\,(16.977\times(-0.5) - 4.244) = -3830\\ R_x &= -13\,104\ \text{N}\\[4pt] y:\ \ 170(0.866) - 883 + R_y &= 300\,(-16.977\times 0.866) = -4411\\ R_y &= -3675\ \text{N} \end{aligned}

The force exerted by the water on the bend is (+13 104, +3675)(+13\,104,\ +3675) N, with Fx=13 104F_x = 13\,104 N and Fy=3675F_y = 3675 N:

F=13 1042+36752=13 600 N,θ=tan⁡−1367513 104=15.7∘F = \sqrt{13\,104^2 + 3675^2} = 13\,600\ \text{N},\qquad \theta = \tan^{-1}\frac{3675}{13\,104} = 15.7^\circ

Answer: the force of water on the bend ≈13.6\approx 13.6 kN, acting at about 15.7∘15.7^\circ above the horizontal in the direction of the inlet flow (Fx=13.10F_x = 13.10 kN, Fy=3.68F_y = 3.68 kN upward).

  • 2079 Baisakh · 3+3 marks

A jet of the water, 50 mm in diameter, is striking normally with velocity of 50 m/s at the center of the plate which is hinged at its top edge and a horizontal external force is applied at the bottom edge to keep it vertical. What should be the amount of the applied force? If the force is removed what will be the angle of inclination of the plate with vertical for equilibrium condition?

Answer

Given: jet d=50d = 50 mm, V=50V = 50 m/s, a=π4(0.05)2=1.9635×10−3a = \dfrac{\pi}{4}(0.05)^2 = 1.9635\times 10^{-3} m². The plate is hinged at the top, and the jet strikes it normally at its centre.

Force required to hold the plate vertical

Force of the jet on the plate (normal to a flat plate at rest):

F=ρaV2=1000×1.9635×10−3×502=4908.7 NF = \rho aV^2 = 1000\times 1.9635\times 10^{-3}\times 50^2 = 4908.7\ \text{N}

This acts at the centre (distance L/2L/2 from the hinge, where LL is the plate length). Taking moments about the hinge, with the horizontal force PP applied at the bottom edge (distance LL):

P×L=F×L2  ⇒  P=F2=2454.4 NP\times L = F\times\frac{L}{2}\;\Rightarrow\; P = \frac{F}{2} = 2454.4\ \text{N}

Angle of inclination when the force is removed

If the force PP is removed, the plate swings out by an angle θ\theta from the vertical. Equilibrium requires the moment of the jet force about the hinge to equal the moment of the plate weight WW (acting at the plate's centre of gravity, L/2L/2 from the hinge).

The jet strikes at a distance ℓ\ell along the plate from the hinge, with ℓcos⁡θ=L/2\ell\cos\theta = L/2 (jet at fixed height). The normal force on an inclined plate is Fcos⁡θF\cos\theta (the jet makes angle 90∘−θ90^\circ - \theta with the plate).

Fcos⁡θ×L2cos⁡θ=W×L2sin⁡θ  ⇒  sin⁡θ=FW=ρaV2WF\cos\theta\times\frac{L}{2\cos\theta} = W\times\frac{L}{2}\sin\theta\;\Rightarrow\;\sin\theta = \frac{F}{W} = \frac{\rho aV^2}{W}

The weight WW of the plate is needed and is not given. For example, if W=10W = 10 kN: sin⁡θ=4908.7/10000=0.4909\sin\theta = 4908.7/10000 = 0.4909, so θ=29.4∘\theta = 29.4^\circ. If the plate weight is neglected, nothing resists the jet and the plate would swing up towards the horizontal (θ→90∘\theta \to 90^\circ).

Answer: applied force P=F/2=2454≈2.45P = F/2 = 2454 \approx 2.45 kN; the angle follows from sin⁡θ=ρaV2/W=4908.7/W\sin\theta = \rho aV^2/W = 4908.7/W (e.g. 29.4∘29.4^\circ for W=10W = 10 kN).

  • 2078 Bhadra · 6 marks

A stream of air at standard condition from 2 cm dia. nozzle strikes a curved vane as shown in figure. A stagnation pitot tube connected to water-filled U-tube manometer is located in the nozzle exit plane. Calculate the speed of the air leaving the nozzle. Estimate the horizontal component of force exerted on the vane by the jet. [Figure: air flowing through a 2 cm diameter nozzle; stagnation tube connected to a water U-tube with 7 cm reading; free air jet deflected by a fixed vane through 30° at exit]

Answer

Given: nozzle d=2d = 2 cm, standard air ρa=1.225\rho_a = 1.225 kg/m³, water manometer reading h=7h = 7 cm (water ρw=1000\rho_w = 1000 kg/m³). The jet is deflected by the fixed vane through 30∘30^\circ and leaves at the same speed (no friction).

Speed of the air from the pitot reading

A stagnation pitot tube in the nozzle exit plane (where static pressure is atmospheric) reads the dynamic pressure:

p0−p=12ρaV2=ρwghp_0 - p = \frac{1}{2}\rho_aV^2 = \rho_wgh V=2ρwghρa=2(1000)(9.81)(0.07)1.225=1121.1=33.5 m/sV = \sqrt{\frac{2\rho_wgh}{\rho_a}} = \sqrt{\frac{2(1000)(9.81)(0.07)}{1.225}} = \sqrt{1121.1} = 33.5\ \text{m/s}

Horizontal force on the vane

A=π4(0.02)2=3.1416×10−4 m2A = \frac{\pi}{4}(0.02)^2 = 3.1416\times 10^{-4}\ \text{m}^2 m˙=ρaAV=1.225×3.1416×10−4×33.48=0.01288 kg/s\dot m = \rho_aAV = 1.225\times 3.1416\times 10^{-4}\times 33.48 = 0.01288\ \text{kg/s}

The jet enters horizontally with velocity VV and leaves at 30∘30^\circ to the horizontal with the same speed (pressure atmospheric everywhere, so only momentum flux matters). Taking xx along the incoming jet:

−Rx=m˙ (Vcos⁡30∘−V)Rx=m˙V(1−cos⁡30∘)=0.01288×33.48×0.13397=0.0578 N\begin{aligned} -R_x &= \dot m\,(V\cos30^\circ - V)\\ R_x &= \dot mV(1 - \cos30^\circ) = 0.01288\times 33.48\times 0.13397\\ &= 0.0578\ \text{N} \end{aligned}

where RxR_x is the force on the vane in the direction of the incoming jet.

Answer: speed of air V≈33.5V \approx 33.5 m/s; horizontal force on the vane ≈0.058\approx 0.058 N in the direction of the jet. (Equivalently Rx=ρaAV2(1−cos⁡30∘)=0.4315×0.134R_x = \rho_aAV^2(1-\cos30^\circ) = 0.4315 \times 0.134.)

  • 2076 Chaitra · 6 marks

Two large tanks containing water have small smoothy orifices of equal area. A jet of liquid issues from the left tank. Assume the flow is uniform and unaffected by friction. The jet impinges on the vertical flat plate covering the opening of the right tank. Determine the minimum value for height, h, required to keep the plate in place over the opening of the right tank. [Figure: left tank with water head h above its orifice; right tank with constant head H; jet of liquid from left orifice hitting a plate over the right orifice]

Answer

Setup: The left tank has water head hh above its orifice; the right tank has head HH above its orifice (water depth in the right tank is large and constant). Both orifices have equal area aa. The plate covers the right orifice and is kept in place only by the jet.

Force of the jet

By Torricelli's theorem, the jet speed is V=2ghV = \sqrt{2gh}. The jet strikes the vertical plate normally and loses all its horizontal momentum:

Fjet=ρaV2=ρa(2gh)=2ρg a hF_{jet} = \rho aV^2 = \rho a(2gh) = 2\rho g\,a\,h

(If the jet area is aa at the vena contracta, the same expression applies for small smooth orifices.)

Force from the water in the right tank

The water pressure acts on the plate covering the orifice, trying to push it away. Taking the pressure at the orifice (small area) as ρgH\rho gH:

Fwater=ρg H aF_{water} = \rho g\,H\,a

Condition to keep the plate in place

Fjet≥Fwater  ⇒  2ρg ah≥ρg aH  ⇒  h≥H2F_{jet} \ge F_{water}\;\Rightarrow\; 2\rho g\,ah \ge \rho g\,aH\;\Rightarrow\; h \ge \frac{H}{2}

Answer: the minimum height is hmin=H/2h_{min} = H/2, i.e. the head in the left tank must be at least half of the head in the right tank.

  • 2076 Chaitra · 6 marks

Water enters two armed sprinkler vertically at rate of 10 litre/sec, and leaves the nozzle horizontally. The diameter of both the nozzle is 12 mm. Calculate the torque required to hold the arm stationary. [Figure: sprinkler arms with r1r_1 = 60 cm and r2r_2 = 20 cm, θ\theta = 60° at jet 1 and 60° at jet 2, shaft torque TshaftT_{shaft} and angular speed ω\omega]

Answer

Given: total flow Q=10Q = 10 L/s =0.01= 0.01 m³/s entering vertically at the axis; two equal nozzles of d=12d = 12 mm; r1=0.6r_1 = 0.6 m, r2=0.2r_2 = 0.2 m; jets leave horizontally at θ=60∘\theta = 60^\circ to the tangential direction (assumed from the figure). Arm held stationary (ω=0\omega = 0). Both jets give torque in the same sense.

Jet velocity

Nozzles are equal, so each nozzle carries q=Q/2=0.005q = Q/2 = 0.005 m³/s:

a=π4(0.012)2=1.131×10−4 m2V=qa=0.0051.131×10−4=44.21 m/s\begin{aligned} a &= \frac{\pi}{4}(0.012)^2 = 1.131\times 10^{-4}\ \text{m}^2\\ V &= \frac{q}{a} = \frac{0.005}{1.131\times 10^{-4}} = 44.21\ \text{m/s} \end{aligned}

Torque

Water enters along the axis with zero angular momentum. Angular momentum leaving: ρq (r1Vcos⁡θ+r2Vcos⁡θ)\rho q\,(r_1V\cos\theta + r_2V\cos\theta). Torque needed to hold the arm == rate of change of angular momentum:

T=ρ q Vcos⁡θ (r1+r2)=1000×0.005×44.21×cos⁡60∘×(0.6+0.2)=1000×0.005×44.21×0.5×0.8=88.4 N⋅m\begin{aligned} T &= \rho\,q\,V\cos\theta\,(r_1 + r_2)\\ &= 1000\times 0.005\times 44.21\times\cos60^\circ\times(0.6 + 0.2)\\ &= 1000\times 0.005\times 44.21\times 0.5\times 0.8 = 88.4\ \text{N·m} \end{aligned}

Individually: jet 1 gives 66.3 N·m and jet 2 gives 22.1 N·m.

Answer: torque required to hold the sprinkler stationary ≈88.4\approx 88.4 N·m. (This is the torque the sprinkler would exert if free; if the angle θ\theta were measured from the arm, replace cos⁡60∘\cos60^\circ by sin⁡60∘\sin60^\circ.)

  • 2075 Chaitra · 3+3+4 marks

A jet of water with a velocity U and jet area A strikes a flat plate normal to it. Determine the force of impingement, power developed and efficiency (i) when the plate is at rest. (ii) when the plate is permitted to move along the direction of a velocity u. Also determine condition of maximum possible efficiency. (iii) what would be the possible maximum efficiency if series of plates were to face the jet in quick succession?

Answer

Notation: jet velocity UU, area AA, density ρ\rho. The kinetic power available in the jet is 12ρAU3\dfrac{1}{2}\rho AU^3.

(i) Plate at rest

F=ρAU2Power developed=F×0=0η=0\begin{aligned} F &= \rho AU^2\\ \text{Power developed} &= F\times 0 = 0\\ \eta &= 0 \end{aligned}

A stationary plate receives a force but does no work, so its efficiency is zero (the jet's energy is carried away as kinetic energy of the deflected sheet).

(ii) Plate moving with velocity u in the direction of the jet

Only the relative velocity (U−u)(U - u) hits the plate, and the mass flow striking the plate is ρA(U−u)\rho A(U - u):

F=ρA(U−u)2P=Fu=ρA(U−u)2uη=P12ρAU3=2u(U−u)2U3\begin{aligned} F &= \rho A(U - u)^2\\ P &= Fu = \rho A(U - u)^2u\\ \eta &= \frac{P}{\frac{1}{2}\rho AU^3} = \frac{2u(U - u)^2}{U^3} \end{aligned}

Condition for maximum efficiency:

dηdu=0  ⇒  (U−u)2−2u(U−u)=0  ⇒  U−3u=0  ⇒  u=U3\frac{d\eta}{du} = 0\;\Rightarrow\; (U - u)^2 - 2u(U - u) = 0\;\Rightarrow\; U - 3u = 0\;\Rightarrow\; u = \frac{U}{3} ηmax=2(U/3)(2U/3)2U3=827=29.6 %\eta_{max} = \frac{2(U/3)(2U/3)^2}{U^3} = \frac{8}{27} = 29.6\ \%

(iii) Series of plates (e.g. wheel with many vanes)

With plates arriving in quick succession, the whole jet discharge ρAU\rho AU is used, not just ρA(U−u)\rho A(U - u):

F=ρAU(U−u)P=Fu=ρAU(U−u)uη=2u(U−u)U2\begin{aligned} F &= \rho AU(U - u)\\ P &= Fu = \rho AU(U - u)u\\ \eta &= \frac{2u(U - u)}{U^2} \end{aligned} dηdu=0  ⇒  U−2u=0  ⇒  u=U2,ηmax=2(U/2)(U/2)U2=0.5=50 %\frac{d\eta}{du} = 0\;\Rightarrow\; U - 2u = 0\;\Rightarrow\; u = \frac{U}{2},\qquad \eta_{max} = \frac{2(U/2)(U/2)}{U^2} = 0.5 = 50\ \%
CaseForceMax efficiencyAt
Fixed plateρAU2\rho AU^20all
Single moving plateρA(U−u)2\rho A(U-u)^229.6 %u=U/3u = U/3
Series of platesρAU(U−u)\rho AU(U-u)50 %u=U/2u = U/2

Answer: (i) F=ρAU2F = \rho AU^2, P=0P = 0, η=0\eta = 0; (ii) F=ρA(U−u)2F = \rho A(U-u)^2, η=2u(U−u)2/U3\eta = 2u(U-u)^2/U^3, maximum 8/27=29.6%8/27 = 29.6\% at u=U/3u = U/3; (iii) ηmax=50%\eta_{max} = 50\% at u=U/2u = U/2.

  • 2075 Asoj · 8 marks

Water flows into atmosphere through a vertical bend nozzle assembly as shown in figure below. The pipe diameter is 10 cm and nozzle exit diameter is 5 cm. The rate of flow of water is 2400 lpm. The interior volume of the assembly is 18.2 litres. The head loss in the bend is 0.5v22g0.5\frac{v^2}{2g} and in the nozzle it is 2v22g2\frac{v^2}{2g}, where V is the velocity of water in the pipe. Compute the hydrodynamic force on the system. [Figure: vertical pipe of 10 cm diameter turning through a bend to a horizontal nozzle with exit diameter 5 cm; 5 m vertical distance marked]

Answer

Given: pipe d1=0.10d_1 = 0.10 m, nozzle exit d2=0.05d_2 = 0.05 m, Q=2400Q = 2400 L/min =0.04= 0.04 m³/s, volume of assembly =18.2= 18.2 L =0.0182= 0.0182 m³, head loss in bend 0.5V2/2g0.5V^2/2g and in nozzle 2V2/2g2V^2/2g (VV = velocity in the pipe).

Assumed from the figure: water flows upward in the vertical pipe, passes a bend and leaves through a horizontal nozzle into the atmosphere, 5 m above the inlet section.

   exit ====>  (nozzle, d = 5 cm)
   |
   |  5 m
   |
   ^  inlet 1 (pipe d = 10 cm, flow up)

Velocities

A1=7.854×10−3 m2,A2=1.9635×10−3 m2V1=5.093 m/s,V2=20.372 m/s\begin{aligned} A_1 &= 7.854\times 10^{-3}\ \text{m}^2,\quad A_2 = 1.9635\times 10^{-3}\ \text{m}^2\\ V_1 &= 5.093\ \text{m/s},\quad V_2 = 20.372\ \text{m/s} \end{aligned}

Inlet pressure (Bernoulli with losses)

p1γ+V122g=0+V222g+5+(0.5+2)V122g\frac{p_1}{\gamma} + \frac{V_1^2}{2g} = 0 + \frac{V_2^2}{2g} + 5 + (0.5 + 2)\frac{V_1^2}{2g} p1γ=21.15+5+2.5(1.322)−1.322=28.13 mp1=276 009 Pa≈276 kPa (gauge)\begin{aligned} \frac{p_1}{\gamma} &= 21.15 + 5 + 2.5(1.322) - 1.322 = 28.13\ \text{m}\\ p_1 &= 276\,009\ \text{Pa} \approx 276\ \text{kPa (gauge)} \end{aligned}

(using V22/2g=21.15V_2^2/2g = 21.15 m, V12/2g=1.322V_1^2/2g = 1.322 m).

Momentum equation

  • p1A1=276 009×7.854×10−3=2168 Np_1A_1 = 276\,009\times 7.854\times 10^{-3} = 2168\ \text{N} (up, on the inlet face)
  • W=9810×0.0182=178.5 NW = 9810\times 0.0182 = 178.5\ \text{N} (down)
  • ρQ=40\rho Q = 40 kg/s. Inlet velocity =(0,+V1)= (0, +V_1); exit velocity =(+V2,0)= (+V_2, 0).

Forces on the fluid (RR = force of the assembly on the fluid):

x:  Rx=ρQ V2=40×20.372=815 Ny:  p1A1−W+Ry=ρQ (0−V1)2168−178.5+Ry=−203.7Ry=−2193 N\begin{aligned} x:\ \ R_x &= \rho Q\,V_2 = 40\times 20.372 = 815\ \text{N}\\ y:\ \ p_1A_1 - W + R_y &= \rho Q\,(0 - V_1)\\ 2168 - 178.5 + R_y &= -203.7\\ R_y &= -2193\ \text{N} \end{aligned}

The hydrodynamic force exerted by the water on the assembly is the opposite of RR:

Fx=−815 N,Fy=+2193 NF_x = -815\ \text{N},\qquad F_y = +2193\ \text{N} F=8152+21932=2339 N,θ=110.4∘ from the +x direction (the direction of the exit jet)F = \sqrt{815^2 + 2193^2} = 2339\ \text{N},\qquad \theta = 110.4^\circ\ \text{from the +x direction (the direction of the exit jet)}

Answer: the hydrodynamic force on the system ≈2.34\approx 2.34 kN, directed upward and backwards (against the jet), at 69.6∘69.6^\circ above the horizontal, with components 0.815 kN opposite to the jet and 2.19 kN upward.

  • 2075 Asoj · 5 marks

When a jet of fluid strikes series of semicircular vanes, show that the maximum efficiency of the system is 1.

Answer

When a jet strikes a series of vanes, the whole jet discharge (ρaV\rho aV) is used on the moving vanes, because new vanes keep replacing the old ones. The efficiency is the work done on the vanes divided by the kinetic energy supplied by the jet. For semicircular vanes it reaches a maximum of 1 (100%) when the vane speed is u=V/2u = V/2.

Setup

Let VV = jet velocity, uu = vane velocity (same direction), aa = jet area. Take the vanes as smooth, so the relative speed is unchanged.

   jet V -->   ____
 ============>/    \   vane moves
              \____/ -> u
  • Relative velocity at inlet: Vr1=V−uV_{r1} = V - u.
  • The semicircular vane turns the jet through 180∘180^\circ, so the relative velocity at exit is Vr2=V−uV_{r2} = V - u in the opposite direction.
  • Absolute exit velocity along the jet: V2x=u−(V−u)=2u−VV_{2x} = u - (V-u) = 2u - V.

Force and work

Mass flow striking the series of vanes = ρaV\rho a V.

F=ρaV [V−(2u−V)]=2ρaV(V−u)Work done per second=Fu=2ρaV(V−u) u\begin{aligned} F &= \rho a V\,[V - (2u - V)] = 2\rho a V (V-u) \\ \text{Work done per second} &= F u = 2\rho a V (V-u)\,u \end{aligned}

Efficiency

Input power (kinetic energy of the jet per second) =12ρaV⋅V2= \tfrac12 \rho a V \cdot V^2.

η=2ρaV(V−u) u12ρaV3=4u(V−u)V2\eta = \frac{2\rho a V (V-u)\,u}{\tfrac12 \rho a V^3} = \frac{4u(V-u)}{V^2}

Condition for maximum

dηdu=4V2(V−2u)=0  ⇒  u=V2\frac{d\eta}{du} = \frac{4}{V^2}(V - 2u) = 0 \;\Rightarrow\; u = \frac V2

The second derivative is −8/V2<0-8/V^2 < 0, so this is a maximum.

ηmax=4 (V/2)(V/2)V2=1\eta_{max} = \frac{4\,(V/2)(V/2)}{V^2} = 1

Hence the maximum efficiency is 1 (100%) at u=V/2u = V/2. At this speed the exit absolute velocity is 2u−V=02u - V = 0, so the jet leaves with no kinetic energy and all of its energy is given to the vanes.

  • 2074 Asoj · 8 marks

Ignoring friction losses, calculate the magnitude and direction of resultant force, exerted on the bend when water discharges at the atmosphere as shown in figure below. Both nozzles discharge water with a velocity of 20 m/sec. Consider the axes of the pipe and the nozzles lie in a horizontal plane. [Figure: pipe with inlet velocity V1V_1 branching into a straight outlet d2d_2 = 12 cm (V2V_2) and a branch d3d_3 = 10 cm (V3V_3) at 60° to the axis]

Answer

The resultant force is found by applying the Bernoulli equation to get the inlet pressure and then the momentum equation in the xx and yy directions. The result is about 3.71 kN, acting at about 47∘47^\circ to the inlet axis.

Assumptions

The figure does not give the inlet diameter, so I take d1=20d_1 = 20 cm. The inlet pipe lies along the xx-axis, nozzle 2 (d2=12d_2 = 12 cm) continues straight, and nozzle 3 (d3=10d_3 = 10 cm) leaves at 60∘60^\circ to the axis. The plane is horizontal, so weight does not matter. Both nozzles discharge to the atmosphere, so p2=p3=0p_2 = p_3 = 0 (gauge). ρ=1000 kg/m3\rho = 1000\ \text{kg/m}^3.

                    / --> V3 (d3, 60 deg)
   V1, p1  ------->(
                    \ --> V2 (d2, straight)

Discharges and inlet velocity

A1=0.03142 m2,  A2=0.011310 m2,  A3=0.007854 m2Q2=A2V2=0.2262 m3/s,Q3=A3V3=0.1571 m3/sQ1=Q2+Q3=0.3833 m3/s,V1=Q1/A1=12.20 m/s\begin{aligned} A_1 &= 0.03142\ \text{m}^2,\; A_2 = 0.011310\ \text{m}^2,\; A_3 = 0.007854\ \text{m}^2 \\ Q_2 &= A_2V_2 = 0.2262\ \text{m}^3/\text{s},\quad Q_3 = A_3V_3 = 0.1571\ \text{m}^3/\text{s} \\ Q_1 &= Q_2 + Q_3 = 0.3833\ \text{m}^3/\text{s},\quad V_1 = Q_1/A_1 = 12.20\ \text{m/s} \end{aligned}

Inlet pressure (Bernoulli, no losses)

p1=12ρ (V22−V12)=12(1000)(202−12.22)=125 580 Pa=125.6 kPap_1 = \tfrac12\rho\,(V_2^2 - V_1^2) = \tfrac12(1000)(20^2 - 12.2^2) = 125\,580\ \text{Pa} = 125.6\ \text{kPa}

Momentum equation (force of bend on fluid, FxF_x, FyF_y)

Fx+p1A1=ρ (Q2V2+Q3V3cos⁡60∘−Q1V1)Fx=1000 (4.524+1.571−4.676)−3945=−2526 NFy=ρQ3V3sin⁡60∘=1000(0.1571)(20)(0.866)=2721 N\begin{aligned} F_x + p_1A_1 &= \rho\,(Q_2V_2 + Q_3V_3\cos 60^\circ - Q_1V_1) \\ F_x &= 1000\,(4.524 + 1.571 - 4.676) - 3945 = -2526\ \text{N} \\ F_y &= \rho Q_3V_3\sin 60^\circ = 1000(0.1571)(20)(0.866) = 2721\ \text{N} \end{aligned}

The force exerted on the bend by the water is equal and opposite:

Rx=2526 N,Ry=−2721 NR_x = 2526\ \text{N},\quad R_y = -2721\ \text{N} R=25262+27212=3713 N,θ=tan⁡−127212526=47.1∘R = \sqrt{2526^2 + 2721^2} = 3713\ \text{N},\qquad \theta = \tan^{-1}\frac{2721}{2526} = 47.1^\circ

Answer: R≈3.71R \approx 3.71 kN, directed 47.1∘47.1^\circ below the inlet axis (away from the branch side), pushing the bend along the flow direction.

  • 2073 Shrawan · 5+3 marks

A 5 cm diameter jet delivering 56 liters of water per sec impinges without shock on a series of vanes moving at 12 m/s in the same direction as the jet. The vanes are curved so that they would, if stationary, deflect the jet through an angle of 135°. Fluid resistance reduces the relative velocity at exit from the vanes to 0.90 of that at entrance. Determine (a) the magnitude and direction of the resultant force on the vanes (b) The work done per second by the vanes.

Answer

For a series of vanes the whole jet discharge is used, so the force follows from the change of momentum in the direction of the jet and perpendicular to it. The resultant force is about 1.62 kN at 21.3∘21.3^\circ to the jet, and the work done is about 18.2 kW.

Given

d=5d = 5 cm, Q=0.056 m3/sQ = 0.056\ \text{m}^3/\text{s}, u=12u = 12 m/s, deflection =135∘= 135^\circ, Vr2=0.9 Vr1V_{r2} = 0.9\,V_{r1}, ρ=1000 kg/m3\rho = 1000\ \text{kg/m}^3.

Velocities

V=QA=0.056π4(0.05)2=28.52 m/sVr1=V−u=16.52 m/s,Vr2=0.9×16.52=14.87 m/s\begin{aligned} V &= \frac{Q}{A} = \frac{0.056}{\frac{\pi}{4}(0.05)^2} = 28.52\ \text{m/s} \\ V_{r1} &= V - u = 16.52\ \text{m/s},\qquad V_{r2} = 0.9 \times 16.52 = 14.87\ \text{m/s} \end{aligned}
  Exit velocity triangle
     Vr2 at 135 deg to jet direction
   Vx2 = u + Vr2 cos135 = 12 - 10.51 = 1.49 m/s
   Vy2 =     Vr2 sin135 = 10.51 m/s

(a) Force on the vanes

Fx=ρQ (V−Vx2)=1000(0.056)(28.52−1.49)=1514 NFy=ρQ Vy2=1000(0.056)(10.51)=589 NR=15142+5892=1624 N,θ=tan⁡−15891514=21.3∘\begin{aligned} F_x &= \rho Q\,(V - V_{x2}) = 1000(0.056)(28.52 - 1.49) = 1514\ \text{N} \\ F_y &= \rho Q\,V_{y2} = 1000(0.056)(10.51) = 589\ \text{N} \\ R &= \sqrt{1514^2 + 589^2} = 1624\ \text{N},\qquad \theta = \tan^{-1}\frac{589}{1514} = 21.3^\circ \end{aligned}

The jet is turned upward, so the force on the vanes has a component FxF_x along the jet and a component FyF_y of 589 N downward.

Answer (a): R≈1.62R \approx 1.62 kN, at 21.3∘21.3^\circ below the direction of the jet.

(b) Work done per second

Work=Fx u=1514×12=18 167 J/s≈18.2 kW\text{Work} = F_x\,u = 1514 \times 12 = 18\,167\ \text{J/s} \approx 18.2\ \text{kW}

Only FxF_x does work, because the vanes move along the jet direction.

Answer (b): about 18.2 kW.

  • 2072 Chaitra · 8 marks

A 120° bend-cum reducer has 300 mm diameter at inlet and 200 mm diameter at the outlet end. When the bend-cum reducer carries 0.30 m³/s of water, pressure at section 1 (inlet) is 210 kN/m². Assume no energy losses in the bend and determine the components of force exerted by the bend on the flow. Assume the weight of the bend plus water in it to be 1500 N. Assume section 2 (outlet) to be 0.40 m above sections 1 (inlet).

Answer

Apply Bernoulli between the two sections to find p2p_2, then apply the momentum equation in the xx and yy directions on the water in the bend.

Assumptions

The bend lies in a vertical plane. Inlet flow is along +x+x (horizontal). "120° bend" means the flow is turned through 120∘120^\circ, so the outlet velocity makes 120∘120^\circ with the inlet direction and points upward (V2x=V2cos⁡120∘V_{2x} = V_2\cos120^\circ, V2y=V2sin⁡120∘V_{2y} = V_2\sin120^\circ). W=1500W = 1500 N acts downward. ρ=1000 kg/m3\rho = 1000\ \text{kg/m}^3.

            ^ y        2 (outlet, 0.4 m higher)
            |         /
            |        /  120 deg from inlet direction
   1 -----> +-------+--------> x

Velocities and pressures

A1=0.07069 m2,  A2=0.03142 m2V1=0.30/0.07069=4.244 m/s,V2=0.30/0.03142=9.549 m/sp2=p1+ρg(z1−z2)+12ρ(V12−V22)=210 000−3924+12(1000)(18.01−91.19)=169 488 Pa\begin{aligned} A_1 &= 0.07069\ \text{m}^2,\; A_2 = 0.03142\ \text{m}^2 \\ V_1 &= 0.30/0.07069 = 4.244\ \text{m/s},\quad V_2 = 0.30/0.03142 = 9.549\ \text{m/s} \\ p_2 &= p_1 + \rho g(z_1 - z_2) + \tfrac12\rho(V_1^2 - V_2^2) \\ &= 210\,000 - 3924 + \tfrac12(1000)(18.01 - 91.19) = 169\,488\ \text{Pa} \end{aligned}

Forces: p1A1=14 844p_1A_1 = 14\,844 N, p2A2=5325p_2A_2 = 5325 N. Momentum flux: ρQV1=1273\rho QV_1 = 1273 N, ρQV2=2865\rho QV_2 = 2865 N.

Momentum equations (forces by bend on fluid)

x:  Fx+p1A1−p2A2cos⁡120∘=ρQ (V2cos⁡120∘−V1)Fx=1000(0.3)(−4.775−4.244)−14 844−2662=−20 212 Ny:  Fy−W−p2A2sin⁡120∘=ρQ V2sin⁡120∘Fy=2481+1500+4611=8592 N\begin{aligned} x:\;& F_x + p_1A_1 - p_2A_2\cos120^\circ = \rho Q\,(V_2\cos120^\circ - V_1) \\ & F_x = 1000(0.3)(-4.775 - 4.244) - 14\,844 - 2662 = -20\,212\ \text{N} \\[4pt] y:\;& F_y - W - p_2A_2\sin120^\circ = \rho Q\,V_2\sin120^\circ \\ & F_y = 2481 + 1500 + 4611 = 8592\ \text{N} \end{aligned}

Resultant

F=20 2122+85922=21 962 N,θ=180∘−tan⁡−1859220 212=157.0∘ from the inlet directionF = \sqrt{20\,212^2 + 8592^2} = 21\,962\ \text{N},\qquad \theta = 180^\circ - \tan^{-1}\frac{8592}{20\,212} = 157.0^\circ \text{ from the inlet direction}

Answer: Fx=−20.2F_x = -20.2 kN (opposite to inlet flow), Fy=+8.59F_y = +8.59 kN (upward); resultant ≈22.0\approx 22.0 kN at 157∘157^\circ to the +x+x axis. The force on the bend is equal and opposite.

Questions from Old Question Collection (CE 505) (IOE Fluid Mechanics (CE 505) exam papers from 2072 to 2079). Answers are written for this site; check them against your class notes.

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