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Nepal Engineering Council · Electrical Engineering · Chapter 9

Power System Analysis

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184 questions in 6 syllabus topics.

9.1 Transmission line parameters

32 questions · AElE0901

1. The geometric mean radius (GMR) of a solid round conductor of radius r, used in inductance calculations, is:

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Think of e raised to −1/4.

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Answer: A. 0.7788 r

Accounting for internal flux linkage, the solid conductor is replaced by a fictitious hollow conductor of radius r' = r·e^(−1/4) = 0.7788 r.

2. A three-phase line has conductors of radius 1 cm placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side 2 m. The inductance per phase is approximately:

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Use the GMR, not the physical radius.

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Answer: B. 1.11 mH/km

L = 0.2 ln(D/r') mH/km with r' = 0.7788 × 1 cm = 0.7788 cm, so L = 0.2 ln(200/0.7788) ≈ 1.11 mH/km.

3. For the same line (radius 1 cm, equilateral spacing 2 m), the capacitance per phase to neutral is approximately:

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Capacitance uses the physical radius.

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Answer: C. 0.0105 µF/km

C = 2πε0 / ln(D/r) = 55.6×10⁻¹²/ln(200) F/m ≈ 0.0105 µF/km. Capacitance uses the actual radius, not the GMR.

4. A transposed three-phase line has phase spacings of 3 m, 4 m and 5 m. Its equivalent spacing (GMD) is:

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It is a geometric, not arithmetic, mean of three distances.

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Answer: A. 3.91 m

GMD = (D12·D23·D31)^(1/3) = (3×4×5)^(1/3) = 60^(1/3) ≈ 3.91 m.

5. A two-conductor bundle uses sub-conductors of GMR 1.2 cm spaced 40 cm apart. The GMR of the bundle is about:

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Take the geometric mean of the sub-conductor GMR and the bundle spacing.

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Answer: C. 6.93 cm

For a 2-conductor bundle, Ds_b = √(Ds × d) = √(1.2 × 40) ≈ 6.93 cm.

6. Skin effect in an AC conductor becomes more pronounced when:

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Recall how skin depth depends on ω and ρ.

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Answer: D. Frequency and conductor diameter increase

Skin depth δ = √(2ρ/ωµ) shrinks with frequency, so thick conductors at higher frequency crowd current to the surface; higher resistivity actually weakens skin effect, and DC has none.

7. The non-uniform current distribution in a conductor caused by the alternating magnetic field of a nearby current-carrying conductor is called:

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The cause lies in a neighbouring conductor.

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Answer: B. Proximity effect

Proximity effect is the crowding of current due to the field of adjacent conductors; skin effect is due to the conductor's own field.

8. The main purpose of transposing the conductors of a three-phase overhead line is to:

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Think about unequal spacing between phases.

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Answer: A. Equalise the inductance and capacitance of the three phases

With unsymmetrical spacing each phase has a different inductance and capacitance; transposition gives each phase every position over a cycle, balancing the parameters.

9. Which of the following is NOT a result of using bundled conductors on an EHV line?

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Bundling raises the effective GMR.

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Answer: C. Increase in series inductive reactance

Bundling increases the effective GMR, which lowers inductance, raises capacitance, lowers surge impedance (raising SIL) and lowers surface gradient (less corona).

10. An aluminium conductor (ρ = 2.83 × 10⁻⁸ Ω·m) of cross-section 100 mm² is 10 km long. Its DC resistance is:

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Convert mm² to m² carefully.

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Answer: C. 2.83 Ω

R = ρl/A = 2.83×10⁻⁸ × 10 000 / (100×10⁻⁶) = 2.83 Ω.

11. Taking the effect of earth into account, the calculated capacitance of an overhead line:

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Use the method of images.

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Answer: B. Increases slightly

The earth acts like image conductors that bring an equivalent opposite charge closer, so the line capacitance increases slightly.

12. A single-phase two-wire line has conductors of radius 0.5 cm spaced 1 m apart. The loop inductance is approximately:

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The loop has two conductors, each contributing 0.2 ln(D/r').

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Answer: B. 2.22 mH/km

Loop inductance = 0.4 ln(D/r') mH/km = 0.4 ln(100/0.3894) ≈ 2.22 mH/km.

13. If the spacing between the conductors of an overhead line is increased while the conductor size is kept the same:

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Look at where D appears in each formula.

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Answer: A. Inductance increases and capacitance decreases

L ∝ ln(D/r') rises with D, while C ∝ 1/ln(D/r) falls with D.

14. The disruptive critical voltage of an overhead line is the:

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It is the starting point of corona, before it can be seen.

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Answer: B. Minimum phase-to-neutral voltage at which ionisation of air around the conductor begins

Corona starts when the surface gradient reaches the breakdown strength of air; the corresponding voltage is the disruptive critical voltage. The visible glow appears later, at the visual critical voltage.

15. The breakdown strength (dielectric strength) of air at 25 °C and 76 cm Hg, as used in corona calculations, is about:

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The rms value is the peak divided by √2.

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Answer: D. 30 kV/cm peak (21.1 kV/cm rms)

Air at standard conditions breaks down at g0 ≈ 30 kV/cm peak, i.e. 30/√2 ≈ 21.1 kV/cm rms.

16. A three-phase line has conductors of radius 1 cm with equilateral spacing 2 m. With irregularity factor 0.9 and air density factor 1, the disruptive critical voltage (phase to neutral) is about:

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Use g0 = 21.1 kV/cm rms with r in cm.

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Answer: D. 100.6 kV rms

Vd = g0·m0·δ·r·ln(D/r) = 21.1 × 0.9 × 1 × 1 × ln(200/1) ≈ 100.6 kV rms per phase.

17. The air density correction factor δ at a barometric pressure of 72 cm Hg and temperature 35 °C is about:

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Temperature must be in kelvin.

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Answer: D. 0.916

δ = 3.92 b/(273 + t) = 3.92 × 72/308 ≈ 0.916.

18. According to Peek's formula, the corona power loss of a line is proportional to:

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The loss rises steeply once corona starts.

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Answer: C. (V − Vd)², where V is the operating and Vd the disruptive critical phase voltage

Peek's formula: P = (242.2/δ)(f + 25)√(r/D)(V − Vd)² × 10⁻⁵ kW/km/phase.

19. Which of the following is an advantage of corona on overhead lines?

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Think about what happens to a lightning surge travelling on the line.

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Answer: D. It reduces the magnitude and steepness of travelling-wave surges

Corona acts like a safety valve: the increased effective radius and losses attenuate surges. It reduces efficiency, causes radio interference, and the ozone produced corrodes conductors.

20. Corona loss on a given overhead line is generally greatest:

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What weather lowers the critical voltage?

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Answer: A. During rain or fog

Rain drops and fog reduce the critical voltage (by increasing surface irregularity and lowering air strength), so corona loss is much greater in foul weather.

21. Corona on a transmission line can be reduced by:

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Lower the surface field strength.

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Answer: D. Increasing the conductor diameter or using bundled conductors

A larger effective radius lowers the surface electric gradient, raising the critical voltage; reducing spacing or raising voltage worsens corona.

22. For a given line, the visual critical voltage compared with the disruptive critical voltage is:

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Glow appears only after ionisation is well established.

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Answer: C. Higher

Ionisation begins at the disruptive critical voltage but a visible glow requires a higher gradient, so Vv = 21.1 mv δ r(1 + 0.3/√(δr)) ln(D/r) > Vd.

23. The gas produced around conductors by corona discharge, which can corrode conductors and fittings, is:

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It is also responsible for the characteristic smell near corona.

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Answer: A. Ozone

Corona ionises air and produces ozone (and nitrogen oxides which form nitrous acid in moisture), causing corrosion.

24. For a base of 100 MVA (three-phase) and 132 kV (line-to-line), the base impedance is:

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Zbase = kV²/MVA.

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Answer: D. 174.24 Ω

Zbase = (kV_LL)²/MVA_3φ = 132²/100 = 174.24 Ω.

25. A transformer has a reactance of 0.1 pu on its own rating of 50 MVA, 11 kV. On a common base of 100 MVA, 11 kV its reactance is:

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Per-unit impedance is proportional to the base MVA.

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Answer: C. 0.20 pu

Znew = Zold × (Snew/Sold) × (Vold/Vnew)² = 0.1 × (100/50) × 1 = 0.20 pu.

26. A generator rated 25 MVA, 11 kV has a reactance of 0.2 pu. Expressed on a base of 100 MVA, 12 kV, the reactance is about:

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Scale by the MVA ratio and the inverse square of the kV ratio.

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Answer: A. 0.672 pu

Znew = 0.2 × (100/25) × (11/12)² ≈ 0.672 pu.

27. A key advantage of the per-unit system in transformer representation is that:

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Bases on the two sides follow the turns ratio.

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Answer: B. The per-unit impedance is the same whether referred to the primary or the secondary side

With base voltages in the ratio of the turns ratio, the per-unit leakage impedance is identical on both sides, so the ideal transformer can be removed from the circuit.

28. The base current for a three-phase system with base 100 MVA and 33 kV (line) is about:

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Use √3 for a three-phase base.

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Answer: A. 1750 A

Ibase = MVA/(√3 kV) = 100×10⁶/(√3 × 33×10³) ≈ 1750 A.

29. In converting an impedance diagram into a reactance diagram for fault studies, which of the following is usually neglected?

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Keep only what dominates fault currents.

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Answer: B. Resistances, magnetising branches of transformers and static loads

For short-circuit studies the reactance diagram retains only series reactances; resistance, shunt magnetising branches, line charging and static loads are omitted.

30. A single-line diagram of a power system represents a balanced three-phase network by:

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Balanced phases are identical apart from 120° shifts.

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Answer: D. One line and standard symbols for each component, the neutral being implied

For balanced systems one phase with the neutral return implied is sufficient; components are shown by standard symbols on one line.

31. A line impedance of 20 Ω on a system with base 50 MVA and 66 kV has a per-unit value of about:

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First find the base impedance.

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Answer: C. 0.230 pu

Zbase = 66²/50 = 87.12 Ω, so Zpu = 20/87.12 ≈ 0.230 pu.

32. In a balanced three-phase system with properly chosen three-phase and line-voltage bases, the per-unit line voltage and per-unit phase voltage are:

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The √3 appears in both the actual value and the base.

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Answer: B. Equal

The line base is √3 times the phase base, just as the actual line voltage is √3 times the phase voltage, so both have the same per-unit value.

9.2 Performance of transmission line

30 questions · AElE0902

33. In the analysis of a short transmission line (typically below about 80 km), which parameter is neglected?

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Charging current is small on short lines.

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Answer: A. Shunt capacitance

For short lines the charging current is negligible, so only the series impedance R + jX is modelled.

34. For any passive, linear, bilateral two-port network such as a transmission line, the ABCD constants satisfy:

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It is the determinant of the transmission matrix.

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Answer: A. AD − BC = 1

Reciprocity of a passive bilateral network gives AD − BC = 1; for a symmetrical network A = D as well.

35. The ABCD parameters of a short transmission line with series impedance Z are:

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Sending and receiving currents are equal on a short line.

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Answer: D. A = 1, B = Z, C = 0, D = 1

Vs = Vr + Z·Ir and Is = Ir, giving A = D = 1, B = Z, C = 0.

36. For a medium line represented by the nominal-π circuit (series impedance Z, total shunt admittance Y), the constant C is:

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In the π model, B is simply Z; the correction factor moves to C.

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Answer: B. Y(1 + YZ/4)

Nominal π: A = D = 1 + YZ/2, B = Z, C = Y(1 + YZ/4). (In the nominal-T, C = Y and B = Z(1 + YZ/4).)

37. In the nominal-T representation of a medium transmission line, the total shunt admittance is:

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The letter T shows where the shunt branch sits.

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Answer: C. Concentrated at the middle of the line

Nominal T places the full Y at the midpoint with Z/2 on each side; nominal π splits Y/2 at each end.

38. For a long transmission line of length l, propagation constant γ and characteristic impedance Zc, the constant C is:

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C has the dimension of admittance.

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Answer: C. sinh(γl)/Zc

Exact (distributed) model: A = D = cosh γl, B = Zc sinh γl, C = sinh γl / Zc.

39. A lossless line has inductance 1 mH/km and capacitance 0.01 µF/km. Its surge impedance is about:

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Zc = √(L/C), with both per unit length.

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Answer: B. 316 Ω

Zc = √(L/C) = √(10⁻³/10⁻⁸) ≈ 316 Ω.

40. A 220 kV line has a surge impedance of 400 Ω. Its surge impedance loading (SIL) is about:

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Use line voltage squared over Zc.

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Answer: D. 121 MW

SIL = (kV_LL)²/Zc = 220²/400 = 121 MW.

41. A lossless overhead line has L = 1.0 mH/km and C = 0.0111 µF/km. The velocity of propagation of a wave on it is about:

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v = 1/√(LC), per unit length quantities.

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Answer: B. 3.0 × 10⁵ km/s

v = 1/√(LC) = 1/√(10⁻³ × 1.11×10⁻⁸) ≈ 3.0 × 10⁵ km/s, close to the speed of light.

42. The wavelength of a 50 Hz wave on a lossless overhead line (propagation velocity ≈ 3 × 10⁵ km/s) is about:

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λ = v/f.

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Answer: D. 6000 km

λ = v/f = 3×10⁵/50 = 6000 km.

43. The Ferranti effect in a long transmission line refers to:

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Charging current flows through series inductance.

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Answer: D. Rise of receiving-end voltage above sending-end voltage at no load or light load

Line charging current flowing through the series inductance produces a voltage rise along the line when the load is light.

44. A 300 km lossless 50 Hz line (wavelength 6000 km) is energised at 220 kV at the sending end with the receiving end open. The receiving-end voltage is about:

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At no load, Vs = A·Vr with A = cos βl.

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Answer: A. 231 kV

βl = 2π × 300/6000 = 0.314 rad; Vr = Vs/cos βl = 220/0.951 ≈ 231 kV (Ferranti rise).

45. The Ferranti effect becomes more pronounced with:

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The approximate rise is proportional to ω²l².

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Answer: B. Longer line length and higher supply frequency

The no-load rise is approximately ω²LC·l²/2, so it grows with the square of both frequency and length.

46. The percentage voltage regulation of a transmission line is defined as:

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The reference is the full-load receiving-end voltage.

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Answer: C. (Vr,no-load − Vr,full-load)/Vr,full-load × 100

Regulation compares the receiving-end voltage at no load with that at full load, expressed as a percentage of the full-load value.

47. A 3-phase, 33 kV short line has R = 5 Ω and X = 10 Ω per phase. It delivers 10 MW at 0.8 pf lagging at 33 kV. The voltage regulation is about:

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Per phase, drop ≈ I(R cosφ + X sinφ).

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Answer: A. 11.6%

I = 10×10⁶/(√3 × 33×10³ × 0.8) ≈ 219 A; Vs(phase) = |Vr + I(R + jX)| ≈ 21268 V vs Vr = 19053 V; regulation ≈ 11.6% (approx. I(R cosφ + X sinφ)/Vr ≈ 11.5%).

48. For the same 33 kV line (R = 5 Ω per phase) delivering 10 MW at 0.8 pf lagging, the transmission efficiency is about:

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Losses are 3I²R for three phases.

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Answer: C. 93.3%

Losses = 3I²R = 3 × 219² × 5 ≈ 717 kW; η = 10/(10 + 0.717) ≈ 93.3%.

49. For a short line with resistance R and reactance X, the voltage regulation is approximately zero when the load power factor is:

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Set R cosφ − X sinφ to zero.

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Answer: C. Leading, with tan φ = R/X

Regulation ≈ I(R cosφ − X sinφ)/Vr for a leading load, which is zero when tan φ = R/X.

50. The voltage regulation of a short line is maximum (approximately) when the load power-factor angle φ is lagging and equal to:

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Write R cosφ + X sinφ as |Z| cos(θ − φ).

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Answer: B. The line impedance angle, i.e. tan φ = X/R

R cosφ + X sinφ = |Z| cos(θ − φ) is maximum when φ = θ = tan⁻¹(X/R).

51. When a lossless line delivers exactly its surge impedance loading (SIL):

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Compare I²ωL with V²ωC at SIL.

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Answer: D. The voltage profile is flat and the line's reactive generation equals its reactive absorption

At SIL, I²X = V²B per unit length, so the line is reactively self-sufficient and |V| is constant along it.

52. When a line is loaded well above its SIL, it:

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Which grows faster with load: I²X or V²B?

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Answer: A. Absorbs reactive power, and voltage tends to sag along the line

Above SIL the I²X absorption exceeds the line charging, so the line is a net reactive load and voltages fall unless supported.

53. The propagation constant of a transmission line is γ = α + jβ = √(zy). The real part α is called the:

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It describes amplitude decay.

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Answer: A. Attenuation constant

α (nepers/km) gives the decrease in amplitude per unit length; β (rad/km) gives the phase shift.

54. A transmission line terminated in its characteristic impedance has:

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Evaluate (ZL − Zc)/(ZL + Zc).

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Answer: D. No reflected wave at the receiving end

The reflection coefficient (ZL − Zc)/(ZL + Zc) is zero when ZL = Zc, so the line appears infinitely long.

55. A medium line is modelled by a nominal-π with Z = 10 + j50 Ω and Y = j4 × 10⁻⁴ S. The magnitude of constant A is about:

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A = 1 + YZ/2 for the π model.

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Answer: B. 0.990

A = 1 + YZ/2 = 1 + (j4×10⁻⁴)(10 + j50)/2 = 0.990 + j0.002, |A| ≈ 0.990.

56. A line has |A| = 0.95. With the sending-end voltage held at 132 kV, the receiving-end voltage at full load is 125 kV. The voltage regulation is about:

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No-load receiving voltage is not simply Vs.

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Answer: A. 11.2%

At no load Vr = Vs/|A| = 132/0.95 ≈ 138.9 kV; regulation = (138.9 − 125)/125 ≈ 11.2%.

57. When two transmission networks with ABCD matrices T1 and T2 are connected in cascade (T1 first), the overall ABCD matrix is:

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Substitute one two-port equation into the other.

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Answer: D. T1 × T2 (matrix product in order of connection)

Since [Vs; Is] = T1[Vm; Im] and [Vm; Im] = T2[Vr; Ir], the overall matrix is T1·T2.

58. A 132 kV, 50 Hz, 100 km line has a capacitance to neutral of 0.01 µF/km per phase. The charging current per phase (receiving end open, voltage assumed uniform) is about:

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Use phase voltage and total capacitance.

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Answer: C. 23.9 A

Ic = Vph·ωC = (132 000/√3) × 314.16 × 1×10⁻⁶ ≈ 23.9 A.

59. The surge impedance of a typical single-circuit HV overhead transmission line lies in the range of about:

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Cables are much lower than overhead lines.

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Answer: B. 300–500 Ω

Overhead lines typically have Zc ≈ 400 Ω, while underground cables have much lower values of roughly 30–60 Ω.

60. The surge impedance loading of a line can be increased by:

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SIL = V²/Zc; think about what lowers Zc.

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Answer: C. Using bundled conductors

Bundling lowers L and raises C, reducing Zc = √(L/C) and raising SIL = V²/Zc.

61. A 400 kV line has a surge impedance of 320 Ω. Its surge impedance loading is:

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Square the line voltage in kV.

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Answer: A. 500 MW

SIL = 400²/320 = 160 000/320 = 500 MW.

62. For a long line, the receiving-end and sending-end quantities are related by the hyperbolic functions of γl. Which is the correct expression for the sending-end voltage?

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At no load (Ir = 0) the answer must reduce to Vs = Vr cosh γl.

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Answer: B. Vs = Vr cosh(γl) + Ir Zc sinh(γl)

From the distributed-parameter solution, Vs = A·Vr + B·Ir with A = cosh γl and B = Zc sinh γl.

9.3 Fault calculations

31 questions · AElE0903

63. With the symmetrical-component operator a = 1∠120°, the value of 1 + a + a² is:

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Add three equal phasors spaced 120° apart.

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Answer: A. 0

1, a and a² are three unit phasors 120° apart, so their sum is zero.

64. The operator a² (where a = 1∠120°) is equal to:

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a² is a rotation of 240°.

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Answer: B. −0.5 − j0.866

a² = 1∠240° = cos240° + j sin240° = −0.5 − j0.866.

65. In a three-phase system Ia = 100∠0° A while Ib = Ic = 0. The magnitude of each of the sequence currents I0, I1 and I2 is:

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Each sequence formula divides by 3.

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Answer: C. 33.3 A

I0 = (Ia + Ib + Ic)/3, I1 = (Ia + aIb + a²Ic)/3, I2 = (Ia + a²Ib + aIc)/3; with only Ia present each equals 100/3 ≈ 33.3 A.

66. The line currents in a three-phase system are Ia = 10∠0° A, Ib = 10∠180° A and Ic = 0. The magnitude of the positive-sequence current is about:

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Find |1 − a| first.

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Answer: C. 5.77 A

I1 = (Ia + aIb + a²Ic)/3 = 10(1 − a)/3; |1 − a| = √3, so |I1| = 10√3/3 ≈ 5.77 A. Here I0 = 0.

67. A perfectly balanced three-phase set of currents (equal magnitude, 120° apart, sequence a-b-c) contains:

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Compare the given set with the definition of each sequence.

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Answer: B. Only positive-sequence components

A balanced abc set is itself a positive-sequence set, so I2 = I0 = 0.

68. For a delta-connected winding, zero-sequence currents:

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A delta has no neutral, but it is a closed loop.

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Answer: D. Can circulate inside the delta but cannot flow in the connected lines

Zero-sequence currents are in phase in all three phases; there is no return path in the three-wire lines, but they can circulate round the closed delta.

69. A generator neutral is grounded through an impedance Zn. In the zero-sequence network this neutral impedance appears as:

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How much current flows in the neutral in terms of I0?

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Answer: D. 3Zn in series

The neutral carries 3I0, so the voltage drop is 3I0Zn; in the per-phase zero-sequence network it is represented as 3Zn.

70. A generator has Z1 = j0.2, Z2 = j0.2 and Z0 = j0.1 pu, with a solidly grounded neutral and E = 1.0 pu. The fault current for a bolted single line-to-ground fault at its terminals is:

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The sequence networks are in series and the phase current is 3I0.

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Answer: A. 6.0 pu

If = 3E/(Z1 + Z2 + Z0) = 3/0.5 = 6.0 pu.

71. For the same generator (Z1 = j0.2, Z2 = j0.2, Z0 = j0.1 pu, E = 1.0 pu), the fault current for a symmetrical three-phase fault at its terminals is:

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Only one sequence network matters for a balanced fault.

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Answer: A. 5.0 pu

A three-phase fault involves only the positive-sequence network: If = E/Z1 = 1/0.2 = 5.0 pu.

72. For the same generator (Z1 = Z2 = j0.2 pu, E = 1.0 pu), the fault current for a line-to-line fault at its terminals is about:

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Positive and negative networks in parallel; phase current is √3 times I1.

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Answer: C. 4.33 pu

If = √3 E/(Z1 + Z2) = 1.732/0.4 ≈ 4.33 pu.

73. For the same generator (Z1 = Z2 = j0.2, Z0 = j0.1 pu, E = 1 pu, solidly grounded), a double line-to-ground fault occurs at its terminals. The current flowing into ground is about:

Show hint

Find I0 by current division between Z2 and Z0, then multiply by 3.

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Answer: A. 7.50 pu

I1 = E/(Z1 + Z2‖Z0) = 1/(0.2 + 0.0667) = 3.75 pu; I0 = −I1·Z2/(Z2 + Z0) = −2.50 pu; ground current = 3|I0| = 7.50 pu.

74. For a single line-to-ground fault, the positive-, negative- and zero-sequence networks are connected:

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All three sequence currents are equal for this fault.

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Answer: C. In series

The conditions Ia1 = Ia2 = Ia0 and Va1 + Va2 + Va0 = 3ZfIa1 are satisfied by a series connection.

75. For a line-to-line fault (not involving ground), the sequence network connection is:

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No ground connection means no zero-sequence current.

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Answer: B. Positive- and negative-sequence networks in parallel, zero-sequence absent

With no ground path I0 = 0, and Ia1 = −Ia2, Va1 = Va2 (bolted), giving the parallel connection of positive and negative networks.

76. In a double line-to-ground fault, the three sequence networks are connected:

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The sum of the three sequence currents of phase a is zero.

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Answer: B. All in parallel at the fault point

Va1 = Va2 = Va0 (bolted) and Ia1 + Ia2 + Ia0 = 0 lead to a parallel connection of all three networks.

77. On overhead power systems, the most frequently occurring type of fault is:

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Think of a single insulator flashing over.

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Answer: C. Single line-to-ground fault

Roughly 70–80% of faults are single line-to-ground (e.g. insulator flashover to tower); three-phase faults are the rarest though usually the most severe.

78. A three-phase fault current of 5 pu flows on an 11 kV bus. If the base is 100 MVA, the fault current in kiloamperes is about:

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Multiply pu current by the base current.

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Answer: C. 26.2 kA

Ibase = 100×10⁶/(√3 × 11×10³) ≈ 5249 A, so If = 5 × 5249 ≈ 26.2 kA.

79. The Thevenin (positive-sequence) impedance at a bus is 0.1 pu on a 100 MVA base, and the prefault voltage is 1.0 pu. The three-phase short-circuit level of the bus is:

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Fault level is inversely proportional to Zth.

Show answer

Answer: B. 1000 MVA

Fault MVA = Base MVA/Zth(pu) = 100/0.1 = 1000 MVA (with 1.0 pu prefault voltage).

80. When a single line-to-ground fault occurs on an ungrounded (isolated neutral) three-phase system, the voltage of the healthy phases to earth:

Show hint

The neutral shifts to the faulted phase's potential.

Show answer

Answer: A. Rises to about √3 times the normal phase voltage

The faulted phase is at earth potential, so the healthy phases rise to line voltage, i.e. √3 times their normal value.

81. Arcing grounds are a common problem in which type of system?

Show hint

The fault current there is purely capacitive.

Show answer

Answer: A. Ungrounded (isolated neutral) systems

In isolated-neutral systems the capacitive earth-fault current causes repeated arc extinction and restriking, producing high overvoltages (arcing ground).

82. A 50 Hz three-phase system has a capacitance to earth of 1 µF per phase. The inductance of a Petersen (arc-suppression) coil required for resonant grounding is about:

Show hint

The coil reactance must equal the reactance of 3C.

Show answer

Answer: A. 3.38 H

L = 1/(3ω²C) = 1/(3 × 314.16² × 1×10⁻⁶) ≈ 3.38 H.

83. Which of the following is an advantage of a solidly grounded neutral system?

Show hint

What happens to the neutral potential?

Show answer

Answer: B. Voltages of healthy phases do not rise appreciably during an earth fault, permitting reduced insulation

Solid grounding fixes the neutral potential, so healthy-phase voltages stay near normal, but fault currents (and communication interference) are high.

84. For a transposed transmission line, the relation among the sequence impedances is usually:

Show hint

A static element looks the same to either phase rotation.

Show answer

Answer: A. Z1 = Z2 and Z0 is larger than Z1

Static, symmetrical elements have Z1 = Z2; the zero-sequence path includes earth/ground wire return, typically making Z0 about 2–3.5 times Z1.

85. For a star(grounded)–delta transformer, the zero-sequence equivalent circuit:

Show hint

Zero-sequence current can circulate in the delta but not leave it.

Show answer

Answer: B. Connects the grounded-star side to the reference through the leakage impedance, while the delta side is open

Zero-sequence current can flow in the grounded star because it circulates in the delta, but no zero-sequence current flows in the delta-side lines.

86. A line-to-line fault on a power system does not produce:

Show hint

Is ground involved?

Show answer

Answer: C. Zero-sequence current

There is no path to ground, so Ia + Ib + Ic = 0 and I0 = 0.

87. At the fault point in a phase-a single line-to-ground fault, the sequence currents satisfy:

Show hint

Only phase a carries current.

Show answer

Answer: D. Ia1 = Ia2 = Ia0

With Ib = Ic = 0, the symmetrical-component transformation gives Ia0 = Ia1 = Ia2 = Ia/3.

88. A single line-to-ground fault occurs through a fault impedance Zf = j0.05 pu on a system with Z1 = Z2 = j0.2 and Z0 = j0.1 pu (E = 1 pu). The fault current is about:

Show hint

The fault impedance appears three times in the series loop.

Show answer

Answer: D. 4.62 pu

If = 3E/(Z1 + Z2 + Z0 + 3Zf) = 3/(0.5 + 0.15) ≈ 4.62 pu.

89. The initial symmetrical (momentary) short-circuit current of a synchronous generator is calculated using its:

Show hint

Use the reactance that applies in the first few cycles.

Show answer

Answer: D. Subtransient reactance X"d

Immediately after the fault the damper windings limit current to E/X"d; it then decays to transient (X'd) and steady (Xd) values.

90. For a bolted three-phase fault at a bus, the positive-sequence voltage at the fault point is:

Show hint

The fault impedance is zero.

Show answer

Answer: C. Zero

A bolted symmetrical fault shorts all three phases together at zero impedance, so the voltage there is zero.

91. The method of symmetrical components, which resolves an unbalanced set of three phasors into three balanced sets, was proposed by:

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The method dates from 1918.

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Answer: D. C. L. Fortescue

Fortescue presented the method of symmetrical coordinates in 1918.

92. In terms of symmetrical components, the total complex power in a three-phase system is:

Show hint

There is a factor coming from the transformation matrix.

Show answer

Answer: D. S = 3(V0I0* + V1I1* + V2I2*)

Because the transformation matrix satisfies AᵀA* = 3I, the power is three times the sum of the sequence powers, with no cross terms.

93. Negative-sequence currents in a synchronous generator are undesirable mainly because they:

Show hint

Consider the relative speed of the backward field and the rotor.

Show answer

Answer: B. Induce double-frequency currents in the rotor, causing overheating

The negative-sequence field rotates backward at synchronous speed, i.e. at twice synchronous speed relative to the rotor, inducing 2f currents that heat the rotor.

9.4 Load flow

32 questions · AElE0904

94. In load flow studies, the quantities specified at a PV (generator/voltage-controlled) bus are:

Show hint

The name of the bus tells you.

Show answer

Answer: A. Real power P and voltage magnitude |V|

At a PV bus the generator's real output and terminal voltage magnitude are fixed; Q and δ are computed.

95. At the slack (swing) bus in a load flow study, the specified quantities are:

Show hint

It acts as the reference for angles.

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Answer: A. Voltage magnitude and phase angle

The slack bus is the angle reference with fixed |V| and δ (usually 0°); its P and Q are unknown and balance the system losses.

96. The main reason for having a slack bus in a load flow problem is that:

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What quantity cannot be known in advance?

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Answer: C. Transmission losses are unknown until the solution is obtained, so one generator must balance them

Total generation must equal load plus losses, but losses depend on the solution; the slack generator absorbs this mismatch.

97. In the bus admittance matrix Ybus, the off-diagonal element Yik (i ≠ k) is equal to:

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Off-diagonal terms carry a minus sign.

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Answer: C. The negative of the total admittance directly connecting buses i and k

Yii is the sum of admittances terminating at bus i (including shunts); Yik = −yik for the branch between i and k, and zero if no branch exists.

98. A three-bus network has line reactances j0.1 pu (1–2), j0.2 pu (1–3) and j0.25 pu (2–3), with no shunt elements. The diagonal element Y22 of Ybus is:

Show hint

Add the admittances (not impedances) of the lines meeting at bus 2.

Show answer

Answer: B. −j14 pu

Y22 = y12 + y23 = 1/j0.1 + 1/j0.25 = −j10 − j4 = −j14 pu.

99. A line between buses 1 and 2 has series impedance 0.05 + j0.15 pu. The element Y12 of the bus admittance matrix is:

Show hint

Invert the complex impedance, then change the sign.

Show answer

Answer: A. -2 + j6 pu

y12 = 1/(0.05 + j0.15) = 2 − j6 pu, so Y12 = −y12 = -2 + j6 pu.

100. A power network has 10 buses (excluding ground) and 13 transmission lines, no two lines in parallel. The number of non-zero elements in its Ybus is:

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Each line contributes two symmetric off-diagonal entries.

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Answer: C. 36

Non-zeros = diagonal elements + 2 × number of branches = 10 + 2 × 13 = 36.

101. Adding a new line between existing buses i and k of a network modifies which Ybus elements?

Show hint

The line touches only two buses.

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Answer: C. Only Yii, Ykk, Yik and Yki

The new branch admittance adds to the two diagonal terms and subtracts from the two mutual terms; nothing else changes, which makes Ybus easy to modify.

102. Which statement about Ybus for a large practical power system is correct?

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How many neighbours does a typical bus have?

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Answer: C. It is highly sparse and, without phase-shifting transformers, symmetric

Each bus connects to only a few others, so most off-diagonal terms are zero; reciprocity makes it symmetric unless phase shifters are present.

103. The Gauss–Seidel load-flow update for the voltage at PQ bus i is:

Show hint

Start from Pi − jQi = Vi* Σ Yik Vk.

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Answer: D. Vi = (1/Yii)[(Pi − jQi)/Vi* − Σ(k≠i) Yik Vk]

From Si* = Vi* Σ Yik Vk, solving for Vi gives Vi = (1/Yii)[(Pi − jQi)/Vi* − Σ(k≠i) Yik Vk], using the latest available values of Vk.

104. In a two-bus system, bus 1 is the slack with V1 = 1.0∠0° pu, and the line reactance is j0.1 pu. Bus 2 has a load of 0.5 + j0.2 pu. Starting from V2 = 1.0∠0°, the first Gauss–Seidel iterate of V2 is:

Show hint

A load means negative injected P and Q.

Show answer

Answer: D. 0.98 − j0.05 pu

Y22 = −j10, Y21 = j10, S2 = −0.5 − j0.2. V2 = (1/−j10)[(−0.5 + j0.2)/1 − j10 × 1] = (−0.5 − j9.8)/(−j10) = 0.98 − j0.05 pu.

105. An acceleration factor is used in the Gauss–Seidel load flow method in order to:

Show hint

Think of over-relaxation.

Show answer

Answer: B. Reduce the number of iterations needed for convergence

Over-relaxation (α typically 1.4–1.6) extrapolates each voltage correction, speeding up the slow convergence of Gauss–Seidel.

106. Compared with the Gauss–Seidel method, the Newton–Raphson load flow method:

Show hint

Recall the convergence order of Newton's method.

Show answer

Answer: C. Converges quadratically, in a few iterations nearly independent of system size

NR typically converges in 3–5 iterations regardless of size, though each iteration is costlier because the Jacobian must be formed and factorised.

107. In the polar-form Newton–Raphson load flow, the Jacobian matrix relates:

Show hint

The Jacobian holds partial derivatives of P and Q.

Show answer

Answer: C. Mismatches ΔP and ΔQ to corrections Δδ and Δ|V|

[ΔP; ΔQ] = [J1 J2; J3 J4][Δδ; Δ|V|], with J1 = ∂P/∂δ, J2 = ∂P/∂|V|, J3 = ∂Q/∂δ, J4 = ∂Q/∂|V|.

108. A 10-bus system has 1 slack bus and 3 PV buses; the rest are PQ buses. In polar-form Newton–Raphson load flow, the order of the Jacobian matrix is:

Show hint

PV buses contribute only an angle unknown.

Show answer

Answer: A. 15 × 15

Unknowns: δ at 9 non-slack buses and |V| at 6 PQ buses, i.e. 9 + 6 = 15; so the Jacobian is 15 × 15 (= 2(n − 1) − m).

109. The fast decoupled load flow method is based on the observation that, in transmission networks:

Show hint

Consider the typical X/R ratio of HV lines.

Show answer

Answer: A. Real power depends mainly on voltage angles and reactive power mainly on voltage magnitudes

Because X ≫ R, ∂P/∂|V| and ∂Q/∂δ are small and are neglected, decoupling the P–δ and Q–|V| problems with constant matrices B′ and B″.

110. During load flow, if the reactive power required at a PV bus to hold its specified voltage exceeds the generator's Q limit:

Show hint

The generator can no longer regulate the voltage.

Show answer

Answer: B. The bus is treated as a PQ bus with Q fixed at the violated limit

The generator cannot supply more than its limit, so Q is fixed at that limit and |V| is allowed to vary (PV→PQ switching).

111. Two buses with voltages 1.0∠0° pu and 1.0∠−10° pu are connected by a lossless line of reactance 0.2 pu. The real power flowing from bus 1 to bus 2 is about:

Show hint

P = V1V2 sin δ / X.

Show answer

Answer: B. 0.868 pu

P = V1V2 sin δ / X = sin 10°/0.2 ≈ 0.868 pu.

112. The primary outputs of a load flow solution are:

Show hint

Everything else is computed from these.

Show answer

Answer: A. Magnitude and phase angle of the voltage at every bus

Once all bus voltages are known, line flows, losses and slack-bus generation follow directly.

113. Load flow equations must be solved by iterative techniques because they are:

Show hint

Look at how P depends on |V| and δ.

Show answer

Answer: D. Non-linear algebraic equations

Bus powers involve products of voltage magnitudes and trigonometric functions of angles, giving non-linear algebraic equations.

114. Compared with the bus admittance matrix, the bus impedance matrix Zbus of a large network is:

Show hint

The inverse of a sparse matrix is rarely sparse.

Show answer

Answer: B. A full (dense) matrix

Zbus = Ybus⁻¹; the inverse of a sparse network matrix is generally full, which is why load flow uses Ybus.

115. In the Gauss–Seidel method, at a PV bus in each iteration:

Show hint

|V| is specified but Q is not.

Show answer

Answer: D. Q is calculated, a new voltage is computed, and its magnitude is reset to the specified value keeping the new angle

Q is first estimated from current voltages; the voltage update is then performed and scaled so |V| equals the specified magnitude.

116. If there is no transmission line between buses 3 and 5 of a network, the element Y35 of Ybus is:

Show hint

Off-diagonal terms come only from branches.

Show answer

Answer: D. Zero

Off-diagonal terms are non-zero only for directly connected buses.

117. A line between buses 1 and 2 has series admittance −j10 pu and total line-charging susceptance of 0.04 pu (π model). If this is the only element connected to bus 1, Y11 is:

Show hint

Only half of the line charging appears at each end.

Show answer

Answer: D. −j9.98 pu

Half of the charging susceptance (j0.02) is placed at each end: Y11 = −j10 + j0.02 = −j9.98 pu.

118. A 'flat start' in a load flow study means:

Show hint

It concerns the starting guess.

Show answer

Answer: B. Initial voltages at all PQ buses are taken as 1.0∠0° pu

Unknown magnitudes start at 1.0 pu and unknown angles at 0°, while specified values are used where known.

119. In the polar Newton–Raphson method, the number of mismatch equations contributed by each PV bus is:

Show hint

Count the unknowns at a PV bus.

Show answer

Answer: A. One (ΔP only)

At a PV bus |V| is specified, so only δ is unknown and only the ΔP equation is written; a PQ bus contributes both ΔP and ΔQ.

120. The bus power mismatch used in Newton–Raphson iterations is defined as:

Show hint

It measures how far the current estimate is from satisfying the equations.

Show answer

Answer: B. Specified power minus power calculated from the current voltage estimates

ΔPi = Pi,sp − Pi,calc and ΔQi = Qi,sp − Qi,calc; iterations stop when all mismatches fall below tolerance.

121. The real power injected at bus i in terms of Ybus elements (Yik = |Yik|∠θik) and bus voltages is:

Show hint

Real power uses the cosine term.

Show answer

Answer: B. Pi = Σk |Vi||Vk||Yik| cos(θik − δi + δk)

Pi − jQi = Vi* Σ Yik Vk; the real part gives the cosine expression and the negative imaginary part gives Qi = −Σ |Vi||Vk||Yik| sin(θik − δi + δk).

122. If a network has no shunt elements (no connections to ground), its Ybus matrix is:

Show hint

Sum the elements in any row.

Show answer

Answer: A. Singular, because the elements of each row sum to zero

Without shunt branches, each diagonal equals the negative sum of its off-diagonals, so the rows are linearly dependent and Ybus cannot be inverted.

123. In a Gauss–Seidel iteration, a bus voltage changes from 1.000 pu to a newly computed 0.980 pu (real values for simplicity). With an acceleration factor of 1.6, the accelerated value is:

Show hint

The correction, not the voltage, is multiplied by α.

Show answer

Answer: C. 0.968 pu

V_acc = V_old + α(V_new − V_old) = 1.000 + 1.6(0.980 − 1.000) = 0.968 pu.

124. Two buses with voltages 1.0∠0° pu and 1.0∠−10° pu are joined by a lossless line of reactance 0.2 pu. The reactive power leaving bus 1 towards bus 2 is about:

Show hint

Q12 = (V1² − V1V2 cos δ)/X.

Show answer

Answer: D. 0.076 pu

Q12 = (V1² − V1V2 cos δ)/X = (1 − cos10°)/0.2 ≈ 0.076 pu; with equal voltage magnitudes both ends supply half of the line's I²X.

125. For a lossless two-bus system with |V1| = |V2| = 1.0 pu, X = 0.2 pu and angle difference δ = 10°, the Jacobian term ∂P/∂δ (power transfer versus angle) is about:

Show hint

Differentiate sin δ.

Show answer

Answer: D. 4.92 pu/rad

P = V1V2 sin δ/X, so ∂P/∂δ = V1V2 cos δ/X = cos10°/0.2 ≈ 4.92 pu/rad.

9.5 Stability analysis

30 questions · AElE0905

126. A generator with internal emf 1.2 pu is connected to an infinite bus of 1.0 pu through a total reactance of 0.5 pu. The steady-state stability limit (maximum power transfer) is:

Show hint

P = (EV/X) sin δ; take the maximum.

Show answer

Answer: D. 2.4 pu

Pmax = EV/X = 1.2 × 1.0/0.5 = 2.4 pu.

127. For the same system (Pmax = 2.4 pu), the electrical power output at a load angle of 30° is:

Show hint

Use the power–angle equation.

Show answer

Answer: D. 1.2 pu

Pe = Pmax sin δ = 2.4 × sin 30° = 1.2 pu.

128. For a round-rotor generator connected to an infinite bus through a pure reactance (resistance neglected), the theoretical steady-state stability limit is reached at a load angle of:

Show hint

Where does sin δ have its maximum?

Show answer

Answer: A. 90°

Pe = Pmax sin δ peaks at δ = 90°; beyond this, increasing δ reduces power and synchronism is lost.

129. The swing equation of a synchronous machine, with H in seconds and powers in per unit, is:

Show hint

Accelerating power equals inertia times angular acceleration.

Show answer

Answer: B. (2H/ωs) d²δ/dt² = Pm − Pe

Newton's law for the rotor, expressed with the inertia constant H, gives (2H/ωs) d²δ/dt² = Pa = Pm − Pe (damping neglected).

130. A 100 MVA generator stores 500 MJ of kinetic energy at synchronous speed. Its inertia constant H on a 200 MVA common base is:

Show hint

H scales inversely with the base MVA.

Show answer

Answer: C. 2.5 s

On its own rating H = 500/100 = 5 s; on 200 MVA, H = 5 × 100/200 = 2.5 s.

131. The equal area criterion for transient stability is directly applicable to:

Show hint

It relies on a single power–angle curve.

Show answer

Answer: C. A single machine connected to an infinite bus (or a two-machine system)

The criterion uses the P–δ curve of one machine against an infinite bus (a two-machine system can be reduced to this form); multi-machine systems need numerical solution of swing equations.

132. According to the equal area criterion, the system remains stable after a disturbance if:

Show hint

Energy gained must be given back.

Show answer

Answer: A. The decelerating area available equals or exceeds the accelerating area

The kinetic energy gained during acceleration (A1) must be fully returned during deceleration (A2) before δ reaches its maximum allowable value.

133. A generator delivers power at δ0 = 30° to an infinite bus. A three-phase fault at its terminals reduces electrical output to zero, and clearing restores the original network. The critical clearing angle is about:

Show hint

Apply equal areas with δmax = π − δ0.

Show answer

Answer: B. 79.6°

cos δcr = (π − 2δ0) sin δ0 − cos δ0 = (2.094)(0.5) − 0.866 = 0.181, so δcr ≈ 79.6°.

134. For the case above (δ0 = 30°, δcr ≈ 79.6°, Pe = 0 during fault), the machine has H = 5 s, f = 50 Hz and Pm = 1.0 pu. The critical clearing time is about:

Show hint

Integrate the swing equation twice with constant accelerating power; use radians.

Show answer

Answer: B. 0.235 s

With Pe = 0, δ = δ0 + (ωsPm/4H)t², so tcr = √[4H(δcr − δ0)/(ωsPm)] = √[20 × 0.866/314.16] ≈ 0.235 s (angles in radians).

135. A generator operating at no load on an infinite bus (lossless system) is suddenly loaded. By the equal area criterion, the maximum step of mechanical input it can accept without losing synchronism is about:

Show hint

The step cannot reach Pmax because of rotor overshoot.

Show answer

Answer: C. 0.725 Pmax

Equating accelerating and decelerating areas from δ = 0 with δmax = π − δ1 gives sin δ1 (π − δ1) = 1 + cos δ1, i.e. δ1 ≈ 46.4° and Pm ≈ 0.725 Pmax.

136. Which of the following does NOT help improve the transient stability of a power system?

Show hint

What happens to Pmax when X increases?

Show answer

Answer: D. Increasing the transfer reactance between generator and load

Higher reactance lowers Pmax and the decelerating area; fast clearing, quick excitation and series compensation all improve stability.

137. Increasing the inertia constant H of a generator (other things unchanged) generally:

Show hint

Inertia resists change in speed.

Show answer

Answer: C. Improves transient stability by slowing the rotor angle swing

Larger H means smaller angular acceleration for the same accelerating power, so δ rises more slowly and the critical clearing time increases.

138. A generator with Pmax = 2.0 pu operates at δ = 30°. The synchronising power coefficient is about:

Show hint

Differentiate Pmax sin δ.

Show answer

Answer: B. 1.732 pu/rad

Ps = dPe/dδ = Pmax cos δ = 2 × cos 30° ≈ 1.732 pu per electrical radian.

139. A 50 Hz generator with H = 5 s has a synchronising power coefficient of 1.732 pu/rad. Neglecting damping, the natural frequency of small rotor oscillations is about:

Show hint

Linearise the swing equation; convert rad/s to Hz at the end.

Show answer

Answer: D. 1.17 Hz

ωn = √(ωsPs/2H) = √(314.16 × 1.732/10) ≈ 7.38 rad/s, so fn ≈ 1.17 Hz.

140. Transient stability of a power system refers to its ability to:

Show hint

Large or small disturbance?

Show answer

Answer: B. Remain in synchronism after a large, sudden disturbance such as a fault

Transient stability deals with large disturbances (faults, line switching) over the first swing or few seconds; steady-state stability deals with small, slow changes.

141. Voltage collapse in a power system is primarily caused by:

Show hint

Voltage is tightly linked to which kind of power?

Show answer

Answer: B. Inability of the system to meet the reactive power demand of heavily loaded areas

Voltage stability is mainly a reactive-power problem: when Q support is insufficient, voltages decline progressively, leading to collapse.

142. A bus is voltage stable if its voltage magnitude:

Show hint

Injecting Q should normally support the voltage.

Show answer

Answer: C. Increases when reactive power injection at that bus is increased

Positive V–Q sensitivity (dV/dQ > 0) at every bus indicates voltage stability; a negative sensitivity at any bus indicates instability.

143. On the P–V (nose) curve of a load bus, the tip of the nose represents:

Show hint

Beyond this point there is no solution.

Show answer

Answer: A. The maximum loadability point, i.e. the voltage stability limit

Beyond the nose point no load-flow solution exists for higher loading; it marks the critical voltage and maximum power transfer.

144. A power system stabilizer (PSS) improves stability by:

Show hint

It acts through the exciter.

Show answer

Answer: C. Adding a supplementary signal to the excitation system to damp rotor oscillations

A PSS uses speed, frequency or power deviation to modulate excitation, producing a damping torque component on electromechanical oscillations.

145. A generator (E = 1.2 pu, reactance 0.2 pu) feeds an infinite bus (1.0 pu) through two identical parallel lines of 0.4 pu each. If one line is tripped, the maximum power transfer changes from:

Show hint

Recompute the series-parallel reactance.

Show answer

Answer: D. 3.0 pu to 2.0 pu

Before: X = 0.2 + 0.4/2 = 0.4 pu, Pmax = 1.2/0.4 = 3.0 pu. After: X = 0.2 + 0.4 = 0.6 pu, Pmax = 1.2/0.6 = 2.0 pu.

146. Single-pole (independent-pole) switching and auto-reclosing improve transient stability mainly because:

Show hint

How many phases are lost in an LG fault?

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Answer: C. Healthy phases continue to transmit power during a single line-to-ground fault

Opening only the faulted phase lets the other two phases keep transferring synchronising power, enlarging the decelerating area.

147. The swing curve (δ versus t) of a machine in a multi-machine system is usually obtained by:

Show hint

The swing equation is a non-linear differential equation.

Show answer

Answer: B. Numerical step-by-step solution of the swing equations

Swing equations are non-linear differential equations, solved by point-by-point, modified Euler or Runge–Kutta methods.

148. An infinite bus is characterised by:

Show hint

Think of an extremely large system.

Show answer

Answer: A. Constant voltage and constant frequency irrespective of the power drawn

An infinite bus represents a very large system with zero internal impedance and infinite inertia, so its V and f are fixed.

149. Series capacitors compensate 40% of the reactance of a line connecting a generator to an infinite bus (line reactance is the only reactance). The maximum power transfer increases by about:

Show hint

Pmax is inversely proportional to the net reactance.

Show answer

Answer: D. 66.7%

Net X becomes 0.6X, so Pmax rises by the factor 1/0.6 ≈ 1.667, an increase of about 66.7%.

150. A 100 MVA, 50 Hz generator has H = 4 MJ/MVA. Its angular momentum M at synchronous speed is about:

Show hint

M = 2 × stored energy / ωs, with ωs = 2πf.

Show answer

Answer: A. 2.546 MJ·s/elec. rad

M = GH/(πf) = (100 × 4)/(π × 50) ≈ 2.546 MJ·s per electrical radian.

151. Compared with the steady-state stability limit, the transient stability limit of a system is generally:

Show hint

Think about rotor overshoot after a large disturbance.

Show answer

Answer: A. Lower

Under a large disturbance the rotor overshoots, so the maximum power that can be transferred while remaining stable is less than Pmax.

152. From the transient stability point of view, the most severe type of fault is usually:

Show hint

Which fault blocks power transfer most?

Show answer

Answer: D. Three-phase fault

A three-phase fault close to the generator reduces transferred power the most (to nearly zero), causing maximum acceleration.

153. Damper (amortisseur) windings on a synchronous machine rotor help stability mainly by:

Show hint

Induced currents oppose relative motion.

Show answer

Answer: A. Damping out rotor oscillations about the synchronous speed

When the rotor oscillates, currents induced in the damper bars produce a torque opposing the relative motion, damping the swings.

154. During a bolted three-phase fault at the terminals of a generator, the accelerating power on its rotor is:

Show hint

What is Pe when the terminal voltage is zero?

Show answer

Answer: B. Equal to the mechanical input power Pm

Electrical output falls to zero (voltage zero), so Pa = Pm − Pe = Pm and the rotor accelerates.

155. On-load tap changers on transformers feeding loads can aggravate voltage instability because:

Show hint

Think about what load does when its voltage is restored.

Show answer

Answer: A. They restore load-side voltage and hence load power, increasing stress on a weakened transmission system

After a disturbance, tap changers raise distribution voltages, restoring voltage-dependent load and increasing reactive demand on the network, which can drive further voltage decline.

9.6 Voltage control and VAR compensation

29 questions · AElE0906

156. For a lossless line of reactance X connecting two buses with voltages V1∠δ and V2∠0, the real power transferred depends mainly on:

Show hint

Look at the power–angle equation.

Show answer

Answer: B. The angle difference δ between the bus voltages

P = V1V2 sin δ / X; with voltages near 1 pu, real power is governed chiefly by the angle difference.

157. In a high-voltage network, reactive power tends to flow:

Show hint

Reactive flow is governed by voltage magnitudes.

Show answer

Answer: B. From the bus with higher voltage magnitude to the bus with lower voltage magnitude

Q12 ≈ V1(V1 − V2 cos δ)/X; for small δ, reactive power flows from higher |V| towards lower |V|.

158. Two buses at 1.05 pu and 1.00 pu (in phase, δ ≈ 0) are connected by a lossless line of reactance 0.1 pu. The reactive power sent from the 1.05 pu bus is about:

Show hint

Use Q12 = V1(V1 − V2 cos δ)/X with δ = 0.

Show answer

Answer: A. 0.525 pu

Q12 = V1(V1 − V2 cos δ)/X = 1.05 × (1.05 − 1.00)/0.1 = 0.525 pu.

159. Two buses, each held at 1.0 pu, are connected by a lossless line of reactance 0.25 pu with an angle difference of 15°. The real power transferred is about:

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P = V1V2 sin δ / X.

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Answer: C. 1.035 pu

P = V1V2 sin δ/X = sin 15°/0.25 ≈ 1.035 pu.

160. A shunt capacitor bank is rated 10 Mvar at rated voltage. If the bus voltage falls to 0.9 pu, its reactive output becomes:

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Capacitor reactive power depends on the square of voltage.

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Answer: C. 8.1 Mvar

Q = V²ωC ∝ V², so Q = 10 × 0.9² = 8.1 Mvar; this drop just when support is needed is a weakness of fixed capacitors.

161. Shunt reactors are connected at the ends of long EHV lines mainly to:

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What happens to an EHV line's voltage at no load?

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Answer: A. Absorb excess reactive power and limit voltage rise at light load

At light load the line charging produces surplus reactive power and a Ferranti rise; shunt reactors absorb it.

162. The main purpose of series capacitor compensation on a long transmission line is to:

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It acts in series with the line inductance.

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Answer: D. Reduce the effective series reactance and increase power transfer capability

Series capacitors cancel part of the inductive reactance, raising Pmax = V1V2/(X − Xc) and improving stability and voltage regulation.

163. A well-known adverse effect associated with series capacitor compensation of lines connected to turbine-generators is:

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The resonance frequency is below the system frequency.

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Answer: B. Subsynchronous resonance

The series LC circuit resonates at a frequency below 50 Hz which can interact with torsional modes of the turbine-generator shaft (SSR).

164. A line of reactance 100 Ω has a series capacitor of 40 Ω reactance inserted. The degree of series compensation is:

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Ratio of capacitive to line reactance.

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Answer: D. 40%

Degree of compensation k = Xc/XL = 40/100 = 40%.

165. A static VAR compensator (SVC) typically consists of:

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It is a thyristor-switched shunt susceptance.

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Answer: A. A thyristor-controlled reactor combined with fixed or thyristor-switched capacitors

SVCs use TCR/TSC/FC combinations for variable susceptance; a STATCOM uses a voltage-source converter, and a synchronous condenser is a rotating machine.

166. Compared with an SVC, a STATCOM is better at low system voltages because:

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Compare a current-source-like device with a susceptance.

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Answer: D. It can supply its rated current nearly independent of the system voltage

STATCOM output current is limited by converter rating, so Q falls only linearly with V; an SVC behaves as a susceptance with Q ∝ V².

167. A synchronous condenser is:

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It is a rotating machine.

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Answer: A. A synchronous motor running without mechanical load, whose excitation is varied to supply or absorb reactive power

Over-excited it supplies lagging vars (acts like a capacitor); under-excited it absorbs vars (acts like a reactor), with smooth control.

168. An on-load tap-changing transformer controls voltage by:

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A transformer is not a reactive power source.

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Answer: A. Changing the turns ratio, redistributing reactive flow without generating reactive power

Tap changers only alter the voltage ratio; they do not produce vars, so the reactive power must still come from elsewhere in the system.

169. An over-excited synchronous generator connected to a grid:

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Higher internal emf than terminal voltage.

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Answer: C. Delivers lagging reactive power to the system

Increasing field current raises E above V, and the generator supplies reactive power (lagging pf operation).

170. A load of 500 kW operates at 0.8 power factor lagging. The capacitor kvar required to raise the power factor to 0.95 lagging is about:

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Use P × (tan φ1 − tan φ2).

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Answer: D. 211 kvar

Qc = P(tan φ1 − tan φ2) = 500(0.750 − 0.329) ≈ 211 kvar.

171. A 30 kvar, 400 V, 50 Hz three-phase capacitor bank is delta-connected. The capacitance required per phase is about:

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In delta, each capacitor sees the line voltage and supplies one third of the kvar.

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Answer: A. 199 µF

Per phase Q = 10 kvar at 400 V (delta): C = Q/(ωV²) = 10 000/(314.16 × 400²) ≈ 199 µF.

172. A load of 1.0 + j0.5 pu is supplied through a line with R = 0.02 pu and X = 0.1 pu, receiving voltage 1.0 pu. The approximate voltage drop is:

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ΔV ≈ (PR + QX)/V.

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Answer: C. 0.07 pu

ΔV ≈ (PR + QX)/V = (1.0 × 0.02 + 0.5 × 0.1)/1.0 = 0.07 pu.

173. On high-voltage transmission lines where X ≫ R, the voltage drop along the line is governed mainly by:

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Compare PR with QX.

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Answer: C. The reactive power flow

ΔV ≈ (PR + QX)/V; with X ≫ R the QX term dominates, so voltage is controlled by managing reactive flow.

174. A 220 kV, 50 Hz line, 200 km long, has a capacitance to neutral of 0.009 µF/km per phase. The total three-phase reactive power generated by line charging (uniform voltage assumed) is about:

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Three-phase charging = V_LL² × ω × C per phase.

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Answer: B. 27.4 Mvar

Q = V_LL² ωC = (220×10³)² × 314.16 × (0.009×10⁻⁶ × 200) ≈ 27.4 Mvar.

175. For a lossless line of reactance X with both end voltages held at V, ideal shunt compensation that holds the midpoint voltage at V raises the maximum transferable power from V²/X to:

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The line is split into two halves of X/2 each.

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Answer: B. 2V²/X

Each half of the line (X/2) can transmit V²/(X/2) sin(δ/2), so Pmax = 2V²/X, reached at δ = 180°.

176. Which of the following devices can only generate (not absorb) reactive power?

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Which one has no controllable inductive part?

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Answer: A. Fixed shunt capacitor bank

A fixed capacitor always supplies vars; the others can both supply and absorb reactive power over a continuous range.

177. A FACTS controller that combines both series and shunt converters sharing a common DC link is the:

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It is the 'unified' device.

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Answer: B. Unified Power Flow Controller (UPFC)

The UPFC has a shunt converter (STATCOM-like) and a series converter (SSSC-like) linked through a DC capacitor, controlling P, Q and voltage.

178. A bus has a three-phase short-circuit level of 500 MVA. Switching in a 10 Mvar shunt capacitor bank will raise the bus voltage by approximately:

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ΔV/V ≈ ΔQ / short-circuit MVA.

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Answer: D. 2%

ΔV/V ≈ ΔQ/Ssc = 10/500 = 0.02, i.e. about 2%.

179. In power system operation, real power–frequency (P–f) and reactive power–voltage (Q–V) control loops can be treated separately because:

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Recall the same idea behind fast decoupled load flow.

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Answer: D. Real power is strongly coupled to angle/frequency and reactive power to voltage magnitude

With X ≫ R, ∂P/∂δ and ∂Q/∂|V| dominate, so the two control problems are loosely coupled.

180. For a short line represented by ABCD constants, the radius of the receiving-end power circle diagram is:

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The radius term contains both end voltages.

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Answer: C. |Vs||Vr|/|B|

Receiving-end complex power Sr = |Vs||Vr|/|B|∠(β − δ) − |A||Vr|²/|B|∠(β − α); the first term gives the radius and the second the centre.

181. A short line has R = 0.1 pu and X = 0.3 pu with |Vs| = |Vr| = 1.0 pu. The maximum real power that can be received is about:

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Resistance reduces the maximum receivable power below VsVr/|Z|.

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Answer: A. 2.16 pu

Pr,max = VsVr/|Z| − Vr²R/|Z|² = 1/0.3162 − 0.1/0.1 ≈ 2.16 pu.

182. A lossless line of reactance 0.5 pu between two 1.0 pu buses is compensated by 30% series capacitance. The new maximum power transfer is about:

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Subtract the capacitive reactance first.

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Answer: B. 2.86 pu

Net X = 0.5(1 − 0.3) = 0.35 pu, so Pmax = 1 × 1/0.35 ≈ 2.86 pu (from 2.00 pu without compensation).

183. Generator automatic voltage regulators (AVRs) control the terminal voltage by adjusting the:

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Q–V control acts through excitation.

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Answer: C. Field (excitation) current

Changing excitation changes the internal emf and hence the reactive power output and terminal voltage; turbine input controls real power.

184. Which is the most suitable location for a shunt capacitor bank used to relieve a heavily loaded distribution feeder supplying lagging loads?

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Supply vars where they are used.

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Answer: D. Close to the load end where reactive power is consumed

Supplying vars locally reduces reactive current through the whole feeder, cutting I²R losses and voltage drop.

Questions written for this site against the official NEC syllabus topics, with every answer worked and checked.

Questions are sorted into the official NEC syllabus topics; a few that sit between two topics may be filed under either.