Skip to main content

Chapter 7 · 6 hours

Material Removal Processes: “ Chip-forming”

Practice questions

Practice questions and answers

6 exam-style questions on this chapter, written for this site from the official syllabus. We haven’t found past IOE papers for this subject yet; if you have some, share them in the community.

  • Practice · 8 marks

Draw the Merchant circle diagram for orthogonal cutting and derive the expressions for the shear force, the normal force on the shear plane, the friction force and the normal force on the tool face in terms of the cutting force FcF_c and thrust force FtF_t. Derive Merchant's relation for the shear angle.

Answer

Orthogonal cutting: the cutting edge is perpendicular to the cutting velocity, so the process can be treated in two dimensions. Symbols: α\alpha rake angle, ϕ\phi shear angle, β\beta friction angle (tan⁡β=μ\tan\beta=\mu), t0t_0 uncut chip thickness, tct_c chip thickness, bb width of cut.

Merchant circle

The resultant force RR in the chip is balanced by the equal and opposite force from the workpiece, and the circle with diameter RR contains all components.

 Chip      Tool
  \   shear plane (angle phi)
   \    /|
    \  / |  Rake angle alpha
 ----O----+-----> V (work moves right)

 Pairs of components of the same resultant R:
   (Fc , Ft)  - measured by dynamometer
   (Fs , Fn)  - along / normal to shear plane
   (F  , N )  - along / normal to tool face
 All lie on a circle of diameter R through O.

The simplified picture: FcF_c and FtF_t are measured by a dynamometer (horizontal and vertical); FsF_s and FnF_n act along and normal to the shear plane; FF and NN act along and normal to the tool face. All six components are the sides of right triangles with the common hypotenuse RR.

Force relations

Resolving FcF_c and FtF_t along the shear plane (inclined at ϕ\phi to the cutting direction):

Fs=Fccos⁡ϕ−Ftsin⁡ϕF_s = F_c\cos\phi - F_t\sin\phi Fn=Fcsin⁡ϕ+Ftcos⁡ϕF_n = F_c\sin\phi + F_t\cos\phi

Resolving along and normal to the tool face (rake angle α\alpha):

F=Fcsin⁡α+Ftcos⁡αF = F_c\sin\alpha + F_t\cos\alpha N=Fccos⁡α−Ftsin⁡αN = F_c\cos\alpha - F_t\sin\alpha

Coefficient of friction: μ=F/N=tan⁡β\mu = F/N = \tan\beta.

Chip thickness ratio and shear angle:

r=t0tc=sin⁡ϕcos⁡(ϕ−α)⇒tan⁡ϕ=rcos⁡α1−rsin⁡αr = \frac{t_0}{t_c} = \frac{\sin\phi}{\cos(\phi-\alpha)}\quad\Rightarrow\quad \tan\phi = \frac{r\cos\alpha}{1 - r\sin\alpha}

Merchant's relation

Shear stress on the shear plane, whose area is As=b t0/sin⁡ϕA_s = b\,t_0/\sin\phi:

τ=FsAs=Rcos⁡(ϕ+β−α) sin⁡ϕb t0\tau = \frac{F_s}{A_s} = \frac{R\cos(\phi+\beta-\alpha)\,\sin\phi}{b\,t_0}

Since Fc=Rcos⁡(β−α)F_c = R\cos(\beta-\alpha), eliminating RR:

Fc=τ b t0cos⁡(β−α)sin⁡ϕ cos⁡(ϕ+β−α)F_c = \frac{\tau\,b\,t_0\cos(\beta-\alpha)}{\sin\phi\,\cos(\phi+\beta-\alpha)}

Merchant assumed that the shear angle adjusts itself so that the cutting force (and so power) is a minimum, with τ\tau constant. Setting dFc/dϕ=0dF_c/d\phi = 0 means the denominator sin⁡ϕcos⁡(ϕ+β−α)\sin\phi\cos(\phi+\beta-\alpha) is a maximum:

cos⁡ϕcos⁡(ϕ+β−α)−sin⁡ϕsin⁡(ϕ+β−α)=cos⁡(2ϕ+β−α)=0\cos\phi\cos(\phi+\beta-\alpha) - \sin\phi\sin(\phi+\beta-\alpha) = \cos(2\phi+\beta-\alpha) = 0 2ϕ+β−α=90∘⇒ϕ=45∘+α2−β22\phi + \beta - \alpha = 90^\circ \quad\Rightarrow\quad \phi = 45^\circ + \frac{\alpha}{2} - \frac{\beta}{2}

Meaning

A larger rake angle or lower friction increases the shear angle, reduces the chip thickness and cutting force. Practical results agree only roughly with the formula; hence Lee and Shaffer's relation ϕ=45∘+α−β\phi = 45^\circ + \alpha - \beta is sometimes used.

  • Practice · 6 marks

In an orthogonal cutting test, the uncut chip thickness is 0.25 mm, the chip thickness is 0.75 mm, the width of cut is 3 mm and the rake angle is 10 degree. The cutting force is 900 N and the thrust force is 450 N at a cutting speed of 90 m/min. Calculate the shear angle, friction force, normal force on the tool face, coefficient of friction, shear force, shear stress, cutting power and the specific cutting energy.

Answer

Given: t0=0.25t_0 = 0.25 mm, tc=0.75t_c = 0.75 mm, b=3b = 3 mm, α=10∘\alpha = 10^\circ, Fc=900F_c = 900 N, Ft=450F_t = 450 N, V=90V = 90 m/min =1.5= 1.5 m/s.

Shear angle

Chip thickness ratio r=t0/tc=0.25/0.75=0.3333r = t_0/t_c = 0.25/0.75 = 0.3333.

tan⁡ϕ=rcos⁡α1−rsin⁡α=0.3333×0.98481−0.3333×0.1736=0.32830.9421=0.3485\tan\phi = \frac{r\cos\alpha}{1 - r\sin\alpha} = \frac{0.3333\times0.9848}{1 - 0.3333\times0.1736} = \frac{0.3283}{0.9421} = 0.3485 ϕ=19.2∘\phi = 19.2^\circ

Forces on the tool face

F=Fcsin⁡α+Ftcos⁡α=900(0.1736)+450(0.9848)=156.3+443.2=599.4 NF = F_c\sin\alpha + F_t\cos\alpha = 900(0.1736) + 450(0.9848) = 156.3 + 443.2 = 599.4\ \text{N} N=Fccos⁡α−Ftsin⁡α=900(0.9848)−450(0.1736)=886.3−78.1=808.2 NN = F_c\cos\alpha - F_t\sin\alpha = 900(0.9848) - 450(0.1736) = 886.3 - 78.1 = 808.2\ \text{N} μ=FN=599.4808.2=0.742,β=tan⁡−10.742=36.6∘\mu = \frac{F}{N} = \frac{599.4}{808.2} = 0.742,\qquad \beta = \tan^{-1}0.742 = 36.6^\circ

Shear force and shear stress

Fs=Fccos⁡ϕ−Ftsin⁡ϕ=900(0.9444)−450(0.3289)=850.0−148.0=702 NF_s = F_c\cos\phi - F_t\sin\phi = 900(0.9444) - 450(0.3289) = 850.0 - 148.0 = 702\ \text{N}

Shear plane area:

As=b t0sin⁡ϕ=3×0.250.3289=2.28 mm2A_s = \frac{b\,t_0}{\sin\phi} = \frac{3\times0.25}{0.3289} = 2.28\ \text{mm}^2 τ=FsAs=7022.28=308 MPa\tau = \frac{F_s}{A_s} = \frac{702}{2.28} = 308\ \text{MPa}

Power and specific energy

Pc=FcV=900×1.5=1350 W=1.35 kWP_c = F_c V = 900\times1.5 = 1350\ \text{W} = 1.35\ \text{kW}

Metal removal rate =b t0 V=3×0.25×1500=1125 mm3/s= b\,t_0\,V = 3\times0.25\times1500 = 1125\ \text{mm}^3/\text{s}.

u=PcMRR=13501125=1.2 J/mm3u = \frac{P_c}{MRR} = \frac{1350}{1125} = 1.2\ \text{J/mm}^3
QuantityResult
Shear angle19.2∘19.2^\circ
Friction force599 N
Normal force on rake face808 N
Coefficient of friction0.742
Shear force702 N
Shear stress308 MPa
Power1.35 kW
Specific energy1.2 J/mm3^3

Answer: ϕ=19.2∘\phi = 19.2^\circ, F=599F = 599 N, N=808N = 808 N, μ=0.74\mu = 0.74, Fs=702F_s = 702 N, τ=308\tau = 308 MPa, P=1.35P = 1.35 kW, u=1.2u = 1.2 J/mm3^3.

  • Practice · 5 marks

State Taylor's tool life equation. In a turning test with a HSS tool, a tool life of 60 minutes was obtained at a cutting speed of 100 m/min and 150 minutes at 80 m/min. Determine the constants n and C, the cutting speed for a tool life of 90 minutes, and the tool life if the speed is increased by 20 percent over 100 m/min. Comment on the economics.

Answer

Taylor's equation: the cutting speed VV and tool life TT (minutes to reach a given flank wear, usually 0.3 mm) are related by

V T n=CV\,T^{\,n} = C

n depends mainly on the tool material (about 0.1-0.15 for HSS, 0.2-0.4 for carbide, 0.5-0.7 for ceramics), and C is the speed for a tool life of 1 minute.

Constants

Two tests give V1T1n=V2T2nV_1T_1^n = V_2T_2^n:

V1V2=(T2T1)n  ⇒  10080=(15060)n\frac{V_1}{V_2} = \left(\frac{T_2}{T_1}\right)^{n}\;\Rightarrow\; \frac{100}{80} = \left(\frac{150}{60}\right)^{n} n=ln⁡1.25ln⁡2.5=0.22310.9163=0.2435n = \frac{\ln 1.25}{\ln 2.5} = \frac{0.2231}{0.9163} = 0.2435 C=V1T1n=100×(60)0.2435=100×2.710=271.0 m/minC = V_1T_1^{n} = 100\times(60)^{0.2435} = 100\times2.710 = 271.0\ \text{m/min}

(Check: 80×1500.2435=80×3.388=271.080\times150^{0.2435} = 80\times3.388 = 271.0.)

Speed for T=90T = 90 min

V=CTn=271.0(90)0.2435=271.02.992=90.6 m/minV = \frac{C}{T^{n}} = \frac{271.0}{(90)^{0.2435}} = \frac{271.0}{2.992} = 90.6\ \text{m/min}

Tool life at 120 m/min

T=(CV)1/n=(271.0120)4.107=(2.258)4.107=28.4 minT = \left(\frac{C}{V}\right)^{1/n} = \left(\frac{271.0}{120}\right)^{4.107} = (2.258)^{4.107} = 28.4\ \text{min}

Comment on economics

A 20 percent rise in speed cuts the tool life from 60 to 28.4 min, i.e. by more than half. Machining time per piece falls, but the tool-change time and tool cost per piece rise. There is an economic cutting speed (minimum cost per piece) which lies below the speed of maximum production rate, and a speed of maximum profit between them. It is found by differentiating total cost (machining + tool-change + tool cost) with respect to speed.

Answer: n=0.2435n = 0.2435, C=271C = 271 m/min, V=90.6V = 90.6 m/min for 90 min life, T=28.4T = 28.4 min at 120 m/min.

  • Practice · 5 marks

List the desirable properties of a cutting tool material. Compare high speed steel, cemented carbide, ceramics, cubic boron nitride and diamond with respect to composition, properties and applications. Why are coated carbide inserts used?

Answer

Desirable properties

  1. Hot hardness - hardness retained at cutting temperature (up to 1000 degree C).
  2. Toughness - resists shocks and interrupted cuts without chipping.
  3. Wear resistance - long life against abrasion, adhesion and diffusion.
  4. Chemical stability - does not react with the work material.
  5. Low coefficient of friction and good thermal conductivity; and reasonable cost.

No material has all properties at once: hardness and toughness are in conflict.

Comparison

MaterialCompositionHot hardness limitUse
HSSFe with W, Mo, Cr, V (18-4-1)about 600 degree CDrills, taps, milling cutters, complex tools, low speeds
Cemented carbideWC grains bonded with Co (6-12 %)about 900 degree CMost turning and milling of steel, cast iron
CeramicsAl2_2O3_3 (with TiC or ZrO2_2), Si3_3N4_4above 1200 degree CHigh speed finishing of cast iron and steel; brittle
CBNCubic boron nitrideabout 1300 degree CHardened steel (above 50 HRC), superalloys
DiamondSynthetic polycrystalline diamondabout 700 degree C in airNon-ferrous metals, composites, plastics; reacts with iron

Cutting speeds rise in about the same order, from 20-60 m/min for HSS to more than 500 m/min for ceramics on cast iron.

Coated carbide

A thin layer (3-10 micrometre) of TiC, TiN, Al2_2O3_3 or a multilayer is deposited by CVD or PVD. The substrate provides toughness while the coating gives wear resistance, a thermal barrier and lower friction. Coated inserts allow 2-3 times the speed of uncoated ones, and give longer tool life.

Economics

Tool cost per piece depends on the tool price, number of regrinds or edges of an insert, and tool life. Disposable indexable inserts remove regrinding cost and give consistent size. A costly tool is justified when it reduces the cost per piece through higher speed, as in CNC and automatic production.

  • Practice · 4+4 marks

(a) List the main operations performed on a centre lathe and explain any three methods of taper turning. (b) A bar of 60 mm diameter is turned on a lathe at 500 rpm with a feed of 0.2 mm/rev and a depth of cut of 2.5 mm. The specific cutting energy of the material is 2.5 J/mm3^3. Determine the cutting speed, the material removal rate, the cutting power and the time to turn a length of 300 mm. Also, a taper is to be turned from 60 mm to 40 mm diameter over a length of 200 mm; find the compound rest setting and the tailstock offset if the whole bar length is 300 mm.

Answer

(a) Lathe operations and taper turning

The centre lathe holds the work between centres or in a chuck and the tool moves along or across the axis. Operations: plain (straight) turning, facing, step turning, chamfering, grooving, parting-off, taper turning, form turning, thread cutting, drilling, boring, reaming, knurling.

Methods of taper turning

  1. Compound rest: the top slide is swivelled to half the taper angle and fed by hand. Suitable for short, steep tapers (angle up to about 45 degree).
  2. Tailstock set-over: the tailstock is shifted sideways so that the work axis is inclined to the bed. Used for long gentle tapers; the centres are mismatched, which spoils the centre holes. Offset is given by S=D−d2⋅LlS = \frac{D-d}{2}\cdot\frac{L}{l} (L = bar length, l = length of taper).
  3. Taper turning attachment: a guide bar at the set angle moves the cross slide automatically while the carriage travels. Gives accurate, long tapers without disturbing the centres.
  4. Form tool: a tool shaped to the taper is plunged in; short tapers only.

(b) Numerical

Cutting speed

V=πDN1000=π×60×5001000=94.2 m/minV = \frac{\pi D N}{1000} = \frac{\pi\times60\times500}{1000} = 94.2\ \text{m/min}

Material removal rate

MRR=f d V=0.2×2.5×94.2×1000=47 124 mm3/min=785 mm3/sMRR = f\,d\,V = 0.2\times 2.5\times 94.2\times1000 = 47\,124\ \text{mm}^3/\text{min} = 785\ \text{mm}^3/\text{s}

Power

P=u×MRR=2.5×785.4=1963 W≈1.96 kWP = u\times MRR = 2.5\times 785.4 = 1963\ \text{W} \approx 1.96\ \text{kW}

Machining time

Tm=LfN=3000.2×500=3.0 minT_m = \frac{L}{fN} = \frac{300}{0.2\times500} = 3.0\ \text{min}

Taper

Half angle for the compound rest:

tan⁡θ=D−d2l=60−402×200=0.05  ⇒  θ=2.86∘\tan\theta = \frac{D-d}{2l} = \frac{60-40}{2\times200} = 0.05\;\Rightarrow\;\theta = 2.86^\circ

Tailstock offset for a 300 mm long bar:

S=D−d2⋅Ll=60−402×300200=15 mmS = \frac{D-d}{2}\cdot\frac{L}{l} = \frac{60-40}{2}\times\frac{300}{200} = 15\ \text{mm}

Answer: V=94.2V = 94.2 m/min, MRR=47.1MRR = 47.1 cm3^3/min, P=1.96P = 1.96 kW, time =3= 3 min; compound rest set at 2.86∘2.86^\circ; tailstock offset =15= 15 mm.

  • Practice · 4+2 marks

(a) Differentiate between up milling and down milling. Write the working principle of a shaper and compare it with a planer. (b) Calculate the machining time to drill a through hole of 20 mm diameter in a 40 mm thick plate with a feed of 0.15 mm/rev at 600 rpm, taking the drill point allowance as 0.3 D.

Answer

(a) Milling, shaper

Milling removes metal with a rotating multi-tooth cutter while the work is fed against it.

PointUp (conventional) millingDown (climb) milling
Cutter rotation vs feedOpposite to feed directionSame as feed direction
Chip thicknessZero at start, maximum at endMaximum at start, zero at end
Cutting forceTends to lift the workPresses the work on the table
Surface finishPoorer; rubbing at startBetter
BacklashNot a problemNeeds backlash eliminator
UseRough surfaces, castings with scaleFinish cuts, thin parts

Shaper: a single-point tool is fixed on a reciprocating ram. The tool cuts on the forward stroke; on the return stroke it lifts (clapper box) and the table feeds the work sideways by a small amount. A quick-return mechanism (crank and slotted link) makes the return stroke faster. It is used for flat surfaces, slots and keyways.

PointShaperPlaner
Moving partTool (ram)Work (table)
Work sizeSmallLarge and heavy
ToolOneSeveral heads
FeedWork moved after each strokeTool moved
Rigidity, costLowerHigher

(b) Drilling time

Length to be travelled:

L=t+0.3D=40+0.3×20=46 mmL = t + 0.3D = 40 + 0.3\times20 = 46\ \text{mm} T=LfN=460.15×600=0.511 min≈30.7 sT = \frac{L}{fN} = \frac{46}{0.15\times600} = 0.511\ \text{min} \approx 30.7\ \text{s}

Answer: drilling time =0.51= 0.51 min.

Written from the official syllabus. Questions and answers are written for this site; check them against your class notes.

Chapter titles and hours from the IOE syllabus ↗